Nursing Elites

1. The nurse assesses a patient who has been hospitalized for 2 days. The patient has been receiving normal saline IV at 100 mL/hr, has a nasogastric tube to low suction, and is NPO. Which assessment finding would be a priority for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

• A. Oral temperature of 100.1°F
• B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L (138 mmol/L)
• C. Gradually decreasing level of consciousness (LOC)
• D. Weight gain of 2 pounds (1 kg) above the admission weight

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority assessment finding for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider is a gradually decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). This change in LOC could indicate fluid and electrolyte disturbances, which require immediate attention to prevent complications. While the other options such as an elevated temperature, serum sodium level, and weight gain are important to note and report, they do not indicate an urgent need for intervention compared to changes in LOC which could signify serious issues that need prompt evaluation and management.

2. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of frequent, watery stools for the last 2 days. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain the baseline weight
• B. Check the patient’s blood pressure
• C. Draw blood for serum electrolyte levels
• D. Ask about any extremity numbness or tingling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the patient’s blood pressure. Given the patient's symptoms of frequent, watery stools, there is a concern for fluid volume deficit. Assessing the blood pressure helps determine the patient's perfusion status, which is crucial in managing fluid volume deficits. While obtaining baseline weight, drawing blood for serum electrolyte levels, and asking about extremity numbness or tingling are important assessments, checking the blood pressure takes precedence as it provides immediate information on the patient's circulatory status.

3. A child is diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The nurse knows that this child has the best prognosis with which treatment regimen?

• A. blood transfusion
• B. chemotherapy
• C. bone marrow transplantation
• D. immunosuppressive therapy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the case of acquired aplastic anemia, bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of cure as it replaces the abnormal stem cells with healthy ones. Blood transfusion may provide temporary relief by replacing blood cells, but it does not address the root cause of the condition. Chemotherapy may be used in some cases, but it is not the preferred treatment for acquired aplastic anemia. While immunosuppressive therapy can be effective, especially in patients who are not candidates for a bone marrow transplant, it is not the first-line treatment and does not offer the same potential for a cure as bone marrow transplantation.

4. While changing a client's post-operative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given there is a positive MRSA, which is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Force oral fluids
• B. Request a nutrition consult
• C. Initiate contact precautions
• D. Limit visitors to immediate family only

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when a client has a positive MRSA and presents with a wound showing signs of infection is to initiate contact precautions. MRSA is highly contagious and placing the patient on contact precautions helps prevent the spread of the bacteria to others in the healthcare setting. (A) Forcing oral fluids will not directly address the MRSA infection. (B) Requesting a nutrition consult is not the priority in this situation. (D) Limiting visitors to immediate family only is not necessary as MRSA precautions are primarily focused on healthcare workers and close contacts who provide direct care.

5. When assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate, which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. The bibasilar breath sounds are decreased.
• B. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent.
• C. The patient has been sleeping most of the day.
• D. The patient reports feeling 'sick to my stomach.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of patellar and triceps reflexes indicates potential magnesium toxicity, requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and lethargy are common side effects of elevated magnesium levels and should be reported, but they are not as critical as the loss of deep tendon reflexes. Decreased breath sounds suggest the need for coughing and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis, which is important but not as urgent as addressing magnesium toxicity.

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