when caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel uap to remove which food fro
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HESI RN

Adult Health 2 HESI Quizlet

1. When caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet, the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to remove which food from the patient’s food tray?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Milk carton. Foods high in phosphate, like milk and other dairy products, are restricted on low-phosphate diets to manage renal failure. Green, leafy vegetables, high-fat foods, and fruits/juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted. Therefore, grape juice, mixed green salad, and fried chicken breast do not need to be removed from the patient's food tray.

2. A patient has a serum calcium level of 7.0 mEq/L. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A - 'The patient is experiencing laryngeal stridor.' Hypocalcemia can cause laryngeal stridor, which may lead to respiratory arrest. Rapid action is required to correct the patient’s calcium level to prevent a life-threatening situation. Choices B, C, and D are also symptoms of hypocalcemia, but laryngeal stridor takes precedence due to its potential to quickly progress to a critical condition.

3. The nurse notes a serum calcium level of 7.9 mg/dL for a patient who has chronic malnutrition. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient with chronic malnutrition is likely to have a low serum albumin level, which will affect the total serum calcium. A more accurate reflection of calcium balance is the ionized calcium level. Most of the calcium in the blood is bound to protein (primarily albumin). Alterations in serum albumin levels affect the interpretation of total calcium levels. Low albumin levels result in a drop in the total calcium level, although the level of ionized calcium is not affected. The nurse should monitor the ionized calcium level to get a clearer picture of the patient's calcium status. Giving oral calcium citrate tablets, checking parathyroid hormone level, or administering vitamin D supplements may be necessary based on the ionized calcium results, but they are not the immediate next step in assessment and management.

4. A patient who is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for the treatment of hypertension complains of generalized weakness. It is most appropriate for the nurse to take which action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Generalized weakness is a sign of hypokalemia, a potential side effect of potassium-wasting diuretics. By requesting a basic metabolic panel, the nurse can assess the patient's potassium levels. Facial muscle spasms are associated with hypocalcemia, not hypokalemia. Advising the patient to avoid orange juice, which is high in potassium, would be counterproductive if the patient is hypokalemic. Loose stools are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

5. Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is prescribed for a patient. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching about this medication has been effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so patients should choose low-potassium foods. Apple juice is a better choice than orange juice in this case as it is lower in potassium. Option A is incorrect because increasing fluid intake excessively is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as salt substitutes are high in potassium, which should be avoided. Option C is incorrect because patients on spironolactone should avoid increasing their potassium intake.

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