HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. After abdominal surgery, an adult is now alert and oriented. What position is most appropriate for the client?
- A. Semi-Fowler's
- B. Prone
- C. Supine
- D. Sim's
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate position for a client following abdominal surgery is Semi-Fowler's. This position promotes greater thoracic expansion and reduces pressure on the suture line, aiding in respiratory function and preventing strain on the incision site. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Prone position (Choice B) would not be suitable after abdominal surgery as it can put pressure on the abdomen. Supine position (Choice C) may cause discomfort and strain on the incision area. Sim's position (Choice D) is primarily used for rectal exams and enemas, which are unrelated to the needs post-abdominal surgery.
2. A client with a diagnosis of asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased oxygen saturation.
- B. Decreased respiratory rate.
- C. Absence of audible wheezing.
- D. Improved exercise tolerance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increased oxygen saturation (A) is the most direct indicator of the effectiveness of albuterol (Proventil) in improving breathing. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, showing that the albuterol is helping with air exchange in the lungs. While decreased respiratory rate (B), absence of audible wheezing (C), and improved exercise tolerance (D) are positive outcomes, they are secondary to oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation directly reflects the improvement in the client's respiratory status and the effectiveness of the medication.
3. When taking a client's blood pressure, the healthcare professional is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. What is the best action for the healthcare professional to take?
- A. Deflate the cuff completely and immediately reattempt the reading.
- B. Reinflate the cuff completely and leave it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds before taking the second reading.
- C. Deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading.
- D. Document the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action when unable to distinguish the point of the first sound during blood pressure measurement is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. This allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring a more accurate reading the second time. It is important to ensure that the cuff is fully deflated and the appropriate wait time is given to obtain an accurate blood pressure measurement.
4. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?
- A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
- B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
- C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
- D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.
5. A female client with chronic back pain has been taking muscle relaxants and analgesics to manage the discomfort, but is now experiencing an acute episode of pain that is not relieved by this medication regimen. The client tells the nurse that she does not want to have back surgery for a herniated intervertebral disk, and reports that she has found acupuncture effective in resolving past acute episodes. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Surgery removes the disk and is the only treatment that can totally resolve the pain
- B. The medication regimen you previously used should be re-evaluated for dose adjustment
- C. Massage and hot pack treatments are less invasive and can provide temporary relief
- D. Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that is often effective for management of pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acknowledging the effectiveness of acupuncture is important, as the client has reported its success in managing her pain previously.
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