Nursing Elites

1. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment.
• B. Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff.
• C. Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs.
• D. Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important action is to ensure that an accurate BP reading is obtained. The nurse should reassess the blood pressure with the correct size cuff (B) to obtain an accurate reading. Postponing reassessment (A) could lead to inaccurate results. While (C and D) are important actions for education and quality improvement, they are not as critical as obtaining an accurate blood pressure reading in this situation.

2. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

3. Warm compresses are ordered for an open wound. Which action is appropriate for the nurse?

• A. Use sterile technique when applying the compresses.
• B. Leave the compresses on the area continuously, pouring warm solution on the area when it cools down.
• C. Alternate warm compresses with cold compresses.
• D. Apply a wet dressing and cover it with a dry dressing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using sterile technique when applying the compresses is crucial to prevent infection and promote wound healing. Ensuring a clean environment during wound care reduces the risk of introducing pathogens that can lead to complications. Proper infection control measures play a significant role in the healing process of open wounds. Choice B is incorrect because leaving the compresses on continuously can lead to skin damage or thermal injury. Choice C is incorrect as alternating warm compresses with cold compresses is not appropriate for an open wound. Choice D is incorrect as applying a wet dressing without following specific orders can be detrimental to wound healing.

4. A client is admitted with a stage four pressure ulcer that has a black, hardened surface and a light-pink wound bed with malodorous green drainage. Which dressing is best for the nurse to use first?

• A. Hydrogel dressing.
• B. Exudate absorber.
• C. Wet-to-moist dressing.
• D. Transparent adhesive film.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best initial dressing for a stage four pressure ulcer with necrotic tissue is a wet-to-moist dressing. This dressing helps to provide moisture, soften necrotic tissue, and prepare the wound bed for healing. It promotes autolytic debridement and can help manage malodorous drainage. Once the necrotic tissue is loosened, other advanced dressings like hydrogel or alginate may be used in the wound bed to facilitate healing.

5. After surgery, a patient has decreased cardiac output. What is a likely observation by the nurse?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Flushing of the skin
• D. Hyperventilation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in cardiac output can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in decreased urine output. The kidneys rely on adequate blood supply to filter waste and produce urine. Therefore, a decreased urine output is a common observation when cardiac output is reduced. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output; flushing of the skin is more related to vasodilation, and hyperventilation is not directly linked to decreased cardiac output.

Similar Questions