HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals
1. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment.
- B. Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff.
- C. Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs.
- D. Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important action is to ensure that an accurate BP reading is obtained. The nurse should reassess the blood pressure with the correct size cuff (B) to obtain an accurate reading. Postponing reassessment (A) could lead to inaccurate results. While (C and D) are important actions for education and quality improvement, they are not as critical as obtaining an accurate blood pressure reading in this situation.
2. The charge nurse observes that a demographic screen has been left open on a hallway computer by a nurse who is responding to a call light while the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is involved in a personal phone call. Which action should the charge nurse take first?
- A. Page the unit manager to address the situation.
- B. Close the demographic screen on the computer.
- C. Instruct the UAP to end the phone call immediately.
- D. Send a UAP into the client's room to relieve the nurse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The charge nurse's first action should be to close the demographic screen on the computer to protect patient confidentiality and prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information. This immediate response addresses the breach of patient privacy and ensures that patient data is secure, setting the right priority in managing the situation.
3. A client with frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) asks the nurse about drinking juice daily to prevent future UTIs. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Orange juice has vitamin C, which deters bacterial growth.
- B. Apple juice is the most useful in acidifying the urine.
- C. Cranberry juice stops pathogens' adherence to the bladder.
- D. Grapefruit juice increases the absorption of most antibiotics.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cranberry juice is known for its ability to prevent urinary tract infections by reducing the adherence of Escherichia coli bacteria to the cells within the bladder. This property helps in maintaining urinary tract health and preventing recurrent UTIs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while vitamin C in orange juice may have some benefits, it is not specifically known for deterring bacterial growth in the urinary tract. Apple juice does not significantly impact urine acidity, and grapefruit juice does not enhance antibiotic absorption, making them less effective choices for preventing UTIs compared to cranberry juice.
4. The healthcare professional observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the healthcare professional's intervention?
- A. The cuff wraps around the girth of the leg.
- B. The UAP auscultates the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg.
- C. The client is placed in a prone position.
- D. The systolic reading is 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse is the site for auscultation when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. Auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg is incorrect as it may lead to an inaccurate reading. Placing the client in a prone position and wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg are acceptable practices. A systolic reading that is 20 mm Hg higher in the lower extremity compared to the arm is expected due to the difference in blood pressure between the upper and lower parts of the body.
5. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
- A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
- B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- C. The client reports shortness of breath.
- D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access