an 18 year old gravida 1 at 41 weeks gestation is undergoing an oxytocin pitocin induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control with
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

1. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

2. One hour after delivery, the nurse is unable to palpate the uterine fundus of a client and notes a large amount of lochia on the perineal pad. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus is the initial intervention to help contract the uterus and reduce bleeding, which is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder can help with fundal displacement, but massage should be done first to stimulate uterine contractions. Increasing the IV oxytocin rate is a possible intervention but not the initial priority. Assessing for shock is important, but addressing the uterine atony through massage takes precedence to prevent further hemorrhage.

3. A primigravida at term comes to the prenatal clinic and tells the nurse that she is having contractions every 5 min. The nurse monitors the client for one hour, using an external fetal monitor, and determines that the client’s contractions are 7 to 15 minutes apart, lasting 20 to 30 seconds, with mild intensity by palpation. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client should be instructed to call when contractions are 5 minutes apart for an hour to ensure she is in active labor before going to the hospital.

4. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2°F and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity is a sign of dehydration in children. In the scenario provided, the child is experiencing increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting, indicating fluid loss and potential dehydration. Occult blood in the stool may suggest gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a direct indicator of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not specific to dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with increased bowel motility, not necessarily dehydration.

5. The nurse is assessing on the first postoperative day following thyroid surgery. Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring calcium levels is crucial post-thyroid surgery to detect hypocalcemia, a common complication due to injury or removal of the parathyroid glands. Monitoring sodium, chloride, or potassium levels is not as vital in the immediate post-thyroid surgery period.

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