HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. Which client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesaemia?
- A. A young adult client with intractable vomiting due to food poisoning
- B. A client who developed hyperparathyroidism in late adolescence
- C. A middle-aged male client in renal failure following an unsuccessful kidney transplant
- D. A female client who excessively consumes simple carbohydrates
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients in renal failure are at high risk for hypomagnesemia due to their impaired kidney function. Renal failure can lead to decreased excretion of magnesium, resulting in its buildup in the body and potential hypomagnesemia. This client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly associated with renal failure and its impact on magnesium levels. Intractable vomiting, hyperparathyroidism, and excessive consumption of simple carbohydrates may have other health implications but are not as strongly linked to hypomagnesemia as renal failure.
2. The mother of a 6-year-old anemic boy is taught by the nurse to give iron supplements. Which statement indicates that the mother understands the proper administration of iron?
- A. The iron tablets will be absorbed between meals, on an empty stomach
- B. I should give the iron tablets with his milk and cereal each morning
- C. Iron preparations can be taken with antibiotics if he develops an infection
- D. The iron tablets may cause him to sunburn more easily so he should wear sunscreen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because iron supplements are best absorbed on an empty stomach, which maximizes their effectiveness. Giving iron tablets with milk or calcium-rich foods, as mentioned in choice B, should be avoided as they can decrease iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect because iron preparations should not be taken with antibiotics due to potential interactions. Choice D is also incorrect as iron tablets do not cause an increased risk of sunburn, so sunscreen is not necessary specifically due to iron supplementation.
3. The nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days post-op following abdominal surgery. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Administer pain medication
- D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This action helps prevent infection and keeps the wound moist, which is crucial in promoting healing. Option B, notifying the healthcare provider, is important but should come after providing immediate wound care. Option C, administering pain medication, is not the priority when there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. Option D, covering the wound with an abdominal binder, is not appropriate for this situation as it does not address the protruding bowel and potential risk for infection.
4. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
- B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
- C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
- D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.
5. A client is taught how to collect a 24-hour urine specimen. Which statement indicates understanding of the procedure?
- A. I should keep the urine specimen refrigerated.
- B. I need to start the collection in the morning after my first void.
- C. I will collect the urine for 24 hours and keep it on ice.
- D. I will start collecting the urine after discarding my first morning specimen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct way to collect a 24-hour urine specimen is to discard the first morning void and then start the collection. Choice A is incorrect because refrigeration is not typically necessary for a 24-hour urine specimen. Choice B is incorrect as the client needs to discard the first void. Choice C is incorrect; while collecting urine for 24 hours is correct, keeping it on ice is not standard procedure.
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