HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam
1. Amniocentesis, a prenatal diagnostic test used to determine fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities, is based on:
- A. The karyotyping of the amniotic fluid
- B. Chorionic villus sampling
- C. Umbilical cord blood sampling
- D. Ultrasound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid, which is extracted from the amniotic sac surrounding the developing fetus. This fluid contains cells shed by the fetus, which can be cultured and analyzed to obtain a karyotype, providing information about the fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the chorionic villi from the placenta, not the amniotic fluid; umbilical cord blood sampling is typically used for other purposes like assessing the baby's blood for infections or genetic disorders; and ultrasound is a diagnostic imaging technique that does not involve the analysis of fetal cells for genetic information.
2. At 8-12 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:
- A. Prickling, tingling sensation.
- B. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
- C. Darkening of the nipple.
- D. Breast start producing milk
Correct answer: D
Rationale: At 8-12 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes typically include the onset of colostrum production, not just tenderness. Colostrum is the first milk produced by the mammary glands during pregnancy. While some women may experience prickling or tingling sensations, prominent and mobile nipples, and darkening of the nipple, the key change during this time period is the production of colostrum. This substance is rich in antibodies and important for the newborn's initial nutrition. Therefore, the correct answer is not listed among the choices provided.
3. Which contraceptive option suppresses sperm motility and inhibits the implantation of the blastocyst?
- A. Copper-T
- B. Diaphragm
- C. Contraceptive pills
- D. Condom
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Copper-T. Copper-T is an intrauterine device that releases copper ions, which suppress sperm motility and inhibit the implantation of the blastocyst. This method mainly works by preventing fertilization and, if fertilization occurs, by making the endometrium less receptive to implantation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The diaphragm is a barrier method that prevents sperm from reaching the cervix; contraceptive pills mainly work by suppressing ovulation and altering cervical mucus to prevent sperm from reaching the egg; condoms are barrier methods that prevent sperm from entering the vagina.
4. What does MTP stand for?
- A. Medical Termination of Parturition
- B. Mechanical Transfer of Pollen
- C. Medical Termination of Pregnancy
- D. Maternally Transmitted Pathogens
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct expansion for MTP is Medical Termination of Pregnancy. This term is commonly used in healthcare to refer to the procedure of ending a pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the expansion of the abbreviation MTP. Choice A refers to labor induction, choice B is related to plant reproduction, and choice D deals with the transmission of pathogens from mother to offspring.
5. What structure lies posterior to the vagina?
- A. Pouch of Douglas
- B. Rectum
- C. Perineal body
- D. Structures of the vulva
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rectum. The rectum is located posterior to the vagina in the pelvic cavity. The Pouch of Douglas (choice A) is a peritoneal pouch located between the rectum and the uterus. The perineal body (choice C) is a fibrous structure located between the vagina and the anus. Structures of the vulva (choice D) are external genital structures surrounding the vaginal opening, not posterior to the vagina.
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