amniocentesis a prenatal diagnostic test used for determining fetal sex genetic anomalies and biochemical abnormalities is based on
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Reproductive Health Exam

1. Amniocentesis, a prenatal diagnostic test used to determine fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities, is based on:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid, which is extracted from the amniotic sac surrounding the developing fetus. This fluid contains cells shed by the fetus, which can be cultured and analyzed to obtain a karyotype, providing information about the fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the chorionic villi from the placenta, not the amniotic fluid; umbilical cord blood sampling is typically used for other purposes like assessing the baby's blood for infections or genetic disorders; and ultrasound is a diagnostic imaging technique that does not involve the analysis of fetal cells for genetic information.

2. What is a characteristic of threatening abortion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Threatening abortion is characterized by a firm contracted uterus with an open os. This presentation indicates a risk of miscarriage. Choice A ('Os open') is not specific enough and does not fully describe the condition. Choices C ('Heavy bleeding') and D ('Severe cramping') can also be present in threatening abortion, but the primary characteristic is a firm contracted uterus with an open os.

3. What are the Carunculae Myrtiformes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Carunculae Myrtiformes are the remnants of the torn hymen. They are not tissues between the vagina and the perineum (Choice A), a part of the clitoral prepuce (Choice B), or structures that partially close the vaginal introitus (Choice D). Understanding the anatomy of the female reproductive system is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide accurate care and information.

4. Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.

5. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is best for:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clients with a baby less than 6 months postpartum. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is a highly effective temporary family planning method that is recommended for women who have recently given birth and are breastfeeding. LAM works best when the baby is less than 6 months old, the mother is exclusively breastfeeding, and her menstrual periods have not resumed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because LAM is specifically designed for postpartum women with infants less than 6 months old, focusing on the lactational infertility that occurs during exclusive breastfeeding.

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