Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not a complication of menopause?

• A. Fractures
• B. Alzheimer's disease
• C. Congestive heart failure
• D. Painful intercourse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Congestive heart failure is not typically associated with menopause. Menopause is linked to an increased risk of fractures due to bone density loss, a higher risk of Alzheimer's disease due to hormonal changes affecting the brain, and painful intercourse due to vaginal dryness and decreased lubrication. While cardiovascular health can be affected by menopause, congestive heart failure is not a direct complication of menopause.

2. Septic abortion is characterized by:

• A. Backache.
• B. Os open.
• C. Heavy bleeding.
• D. Maternal pyrexia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Septic abortion is characterized by maternal pyrexia. Maternal pyrexia, or fever, is a hallmark sign of septic abortion due to infection. Backache and heavy bleeding can be present in abortion but are not specific to septic abortion. 'Os open' does not directly characterize septic abortion.

3. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the menstrual cycle?

• A. Follicular phase
• B. Ovulatory phase
• C. Luteal phase
• D. Secretory phase

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The secretory phase is not considered a distinct phase of the menstrual cycle; it is actually part of the luteal phase. During the luteal phase, the endometrium thickens due to progesterone secretion, preparing for implantation. The follicular phase is characterized by follicle development, leading to ovulation. The ovulatory phase is when the mature egg is released from the ovary. Therefore, the secretory phase is the correct answer as it is not a standalone phase but a part of the luteal phase.

4. Which of the following is a complication of abortions?

• A. Malnutrition
• B. Peritoneum
• C. Fibroids
• D. Septicaemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Septicaemia is a severe complication that can result from abortions due to infections introduced during the procedure. Malnutrition, peritoneum, and fibroids are not typically direct complications of abortions.

5. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is best for:

• A. Clients who do not wish to have any more children
• B. Clients with a baby less than 6 months postpartum
• C. Clients who want to wait before having a first or another child
• D. Clients with several sexual partners

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clients with a baby less than 6 months postpartum. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is a highly effective temporary family planning method that is recommended for women who have recently given birth and are breastfeeding. LAM works best when the baby is less than 6 months old, the mother is exclusively breastfeeding, and her menstrual periods have not resumed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because LAM is specifically designed for postpartum women with infants less than 6 months old, focusing on the lactational infertility that occurs during exclusive breastfeeding.

Similar Questions