Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not a complication of menopause?

• A. Fractures
• B. Alzheimer's disease
• C. Congestive heart failure
• D. Painful intercourse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Congestive heart failure is not typically associated with menopause. Menopause is linked to an increased risk of fractures due to bone density loss, a higher risk of Alzheimer's disease due to hormonal changes affecting the brain, and painful intercourse due to vaginal dryness and decreased lubrication. While cardiovascular health can be affected by menopause, congestive heart failure is not a direct complication of menopause.

2. Which of the following would be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with an ectopic pregnancy?

• A. Risk for infection
• B. Pain
• C. Knowledge Deficit
• D. Anticipatory Grieving

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticipatory grieving is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with an ectopic pregnancy. An ectopic pregnancy is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical intervention, often resulting in emotional distress and potential loss. Anticipatory grieving addresses the emotional needs of the client and their family in anticipation of a possible loss. While pain management and infection prevention are important aspects of care, addressing the emotional well-being and coping mechanisms should take precedence in this situation. Knowledge deficit may also be relevant, but emotional support is crucial in this critical scenario.

3. A client 12 weeks pregnant comes to the emergency department with abdominal cramping and moderate vaginal bleeding. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cm cervical dilation. The nurse would document these findings as which of the following?

• A. Threatened abortion
• B. Inevitable abortion
• C. Complete abortion
• D. Missed abortion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse would document these findings as an inevitable abortion. Inevitable abortion is characterized by cervical dilation with or without rupture of membranes and is associated with moderate to heavy vaginal bleeding. 'Threatened abortion' (choice A) refers to vaginal bleeding with a closed cervical os and no tissue passage. 'Complete abortion' (choice C) involves the passage of all products of conception. 'Missed abortion' (choice D) is the retention of a failed intrauterine pregnancy for an extended period without symptoms.

4. What is a cord inserted to the very edge of the placenta known as?

• A. Battledore insertion
• B. Placenta velamentosa
• C. Placenta accreta
• D. Vasa Praevia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cord inserted to the very edge of the placenta is known as battledore insertion. This occurs when the cord is attached to the fetal membranes at the placental margin rather than directly to the placental tissue. Placenta velamentosa refers to the condition where the umbilical cord inserts into the fetal membranes before it reaches the placenta. Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall. Vasa Praevia is a condition where fetal blood vessels run across or near the internal cervical opening.

5. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?

• A. Threatened
• B. Imminent
• C. Missed
• D. Incomplete

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.

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