NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. What are the basic reasons American families are having difficulty adequately performing their vital health care function?
- A. structure of the health care system and family structure
- B. psychological factors affecting men and women seeking health care
- C. conditions labeled as disabilities and considered too time-consuming
- D. health care organizations (HMOs) and disconnected families
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 'structure of the health care system and family structure'. Scholars suggest that the reasons families are having difficulty providing health care for their members lie with both the structure of the health care system and the family structure. Major factors explaining differences in utilization patterns of medical services include the lack of healthcare insurance coverage, lack of services for special populations (such as teenage males), perception by families of the health care system and the health care provider, and lack of partnership between health care providers and families in mutually addressing health care issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the fundamental reasons related to the health care system and family structure as discussed in the provided extract.
2. When assessing Mr. Lee's eye condition, what general information should the nurse seek?
- A. Type of employment.
- B. Burning or itchy sensation in the eyes.
- C. Position of the eyelids.
- D. Existence of floaters.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a patient's eye condition, the nurse should seek general information such as the type of employment, activities, allergies, medications, lenses, and protective devices used. This information helps in understanding potential exposures to irritants and risks related to activities. While the presence of burning or itchy sensation in the eyes, position of the eyelids, and existence of floaters are important aspects to assess during a focused eye examination, during the initial assessment, the type of employment is more relevant for understanding possible environmental factors affecting eye health.
3. A client can receive the Mumps, Measles, Rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:
- A. is pregnant.
- B. is immunocompromised.
- C. is allergic to neomycin.
- D. has a cold.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold without a fever since it does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine because the rubella component is a live virus that may cause birth defects and/or disease. Being allergic to neomycin is also a contraindication as per the American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines. Individuals who have experienced anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine. Therefore, option D 'has a cold' is the correct choice, as the presence of a simple cold does not prevent the client from receiving the MMR vaccine.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to perform a Rinne test on a client who complains of hearing loss. In which area does the healthcare provider first place an activated tuning fork?
- A. On the client's teeth
- B. On the client's forehead
- C. On the client's mastoid bone
- D. On the midline of the client's skull
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the Rinne test, the base of an activated tuning fork is held first against the mastoid bone, behind the ear, and then in front of the ear canal (0.5 to 2 inches). When the client no longer perceives the sound behind the ear, the fork is moved in front of the ear canal until the client indicates that the sound can no longer be heard. The client reports whether the sound from the tuning fork is louder behind the ear (on the mastoid bone) or in front of the ear canal. Placing the tuning fork on the teeth (Choice A), forehead (Choice B), or the midline of the skull (Choice D) is not part of the Rinne test procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is to first place the activated tuning fork on the client's mastoid bone.
5. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?
- A. Hysterosalpingography
- B. Semen analysis
- C. Endometrial biopsy
- D. Transvaginal ultrasound
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.
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