Nursing Elites

1. A 57-year-old woman is recently widowed. She states, "I will never be able to learn how to manage the finances. My husband did all of that."? Select the nurse's response that could help raise the client's self-esteem.

• A. "You feel inadequate because you have never learned to balance a checkbook."?
• B. "You should have insisted your husband teach you about the finances."?
• C. "You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after a while."?
• D. "I believe in your strength to learn how to manage your finances in time."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should aim to boost the client's self-esteem by providing positive reinforcement. By stating, "You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after a while,"? the nurse acknowledges the client's strength and capability, encouraging her to believe in herself. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on the client's inadequacy rather than empowering her. Choice B places unnecessary blame on the client for not taking action in the past. Choice D, though positive, slightly alters the nurse's original phrase, making choice C the most appropriate response to uplift the client's self-esteem.

2. Mrs. Owens is the 81-year-old mother of Jonathan, who is 54 years old. Jonathan has had schizophrenia since he was 16 years old. Which of Mrs. Owens's concerns is likely to predominate?

• A. "Will my retirement funds outlast me?"?
• B. "Who will handle my funeral arrangements?"?
• C. "What will become of Jonathan when I am gone?"?
• D. "How can I communicate effectively with Jonathan's physician?"?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most prominent concern for Mrs. Owens is likely what will happen to her son, Jonathan, after she passes away. While retirement fund sustainability is important, it is not likely to be her primary concern. Funeral arrangements, although significant, are secondary to the welfare of her son with schizophrenia. The question of how to communicate with Jonathan's physician is less likely to be a predominant concern since Mrs. Owens has likely already addressed this issue over the 38 years of managing her son's care.

3. A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency room with a piece of metal in his eye. Which action by the nurse is correct?

• A. Use a magnet to remove the object.
• B. Rinse the eye thoroughly with saline.
• C. Cover both eyes with paper cups.
• D. Administer eye drops immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Covering both eyes with paper cups is the correct action as it helps prevent consensual movement of the affected eye. Attempting to remove the object with a magnet might cause trauma, making choice A incorrect. While rinsing the eye with saline may be necessary, it should be ordered by a doctor and is not the initial action for the nurse, making choice B incorrect. Administering eye drops immediately, as in choice D, is not appropriate in this scenario and does not address the primary concern of preventing further damage by limiting eye movement.

4. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?

• A. a client with renal impairment
• B. a client with hypertension
• C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
• D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.

5. A client with cancer is to undergo an intravenous pyelogram. The nurse should:

• A. Ensure adequate fluid intake 24 hours before the procedure
• B. Ask the client to void immediately before the study
• C. Administer medication that affects the central nervous system as prescribed
• D. Position the client appropriately for the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to void immediately before the study. For an intravenous pyelogram, the client may have orders for laxatives or enemas, so ensuring the client voids before the test is important to prevent obscuring visualization of the kidney, ureters, and bladder. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to force fluids before the procedure. Choice C is incorrect as medications affecting the central nervous system should not be held unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as covering the reproductive organs with an x-ray shield is not necessary for an intravenous pyelogram.

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