NCLEX-PN
Nclex 2024 Questions
1. Which of the following roommates would be best for the client newly admitted with gastric resection?
- A. A client with Crohn's disease
- B. A client with pneumonia
- C. A client with gastritis
- D. A client with phlebitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most suitable roommate for the client newly admitted with gastric resection is the client with phlebitis. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the blood vessel and is not infectious, making it a safer option for the surgical client. Crohn's disease clients (choice A) have frequent stools that might spread infections to the surgical client, posing a risk. A client with pneumonia (choice B) is coughing, which can disturb the gastric client's recovery. Additionally, a client with gastritis (choice C) who is vomiting and experiencing diarrhea would also not be an ideal roommate for a client recovering from gastric resection.
2. A client asks the nurse if all donor blood products are cross-matched with the recipient to prevent a transfusion reaction. Which of the following always requires cross-matching?
- A. packed red blood cells
- B. platelets
- C. plasma
- D. granulocytes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Packed red blood cells contain antigens and antibodies that must be matched between the donor and recipient to prevent transfusion reactions. Platelets, plasma, and granulocytes do not contain red blood cells, so they do not require cross-matching. Platelets are matched based on ABO compatibility, while plasma and granulocytes are not routinely cross-matched as they lack red cell antigens.
3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.
4. While admitting a client to an acute-care psychiatric unit, the nurse asks about substance abuse based on:
- A. psychiatric disorders' higher prevalence in addicted populations
- B. individuals with psychiatric disorders' increased susceptibility to substance abuse
- C. the importance of detecting and diagnosing substance disorders in acute-care psychiatric settings
- D. the significant impact of undetected substance problems on the treatment of psychiatric disorders
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'individuals with psychiatric disorders' increased susceptibility to substance abuse.' It is crucial to inquire about substance abuse during admission to an acute-care psychiatric unit because individuals with psychiatric disorders are more prone to experiencing substance abuse issues. Addressing substance abuse is vital for effective treatment and to prevent relapse in psychiatric disorders. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on the prevalence of psychiatric illness in addicted populations rather than the relationship between psychiatric disorders and substance abuse. Option C is incorrect as it exaggerates the ease of detecting and diagnosing substance disorders in acute-care psychiatric settings. Option D is incorrect as undetected substance problems can indeed significantly impact the treatment of psychiatric disorders, but the main reason for inquiring about substance abuse is the increased susceptibility of individuals with psychiatric disorders to such issues.
5. Which nurse should be assigned to care for the postpartal client with preeclampsia?
- A. The nurse with 2 weeks of experience on the postpartum unit
- B. The nurse with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery
- C. The nurse with 10 years of experience in surgery
- D. The nurse with 1 year of experience in the neonatal intensive care unit
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery (answer B) should be assigned to care for the postpartal client with preeclampsia. This nurse has the most relevant experience and knowledge of possible complications associated with preeclampsia due to their background in labor and delivery. Assigning a nurse with only 2 weeks of experience on the postpartum unit (answer A) would not be suitable for handling the complexities of caring for a client with preeclampsia. Nurses with experience in surgery (answer C) or the neonatal intensive care unit (answer D) lack the specific expertise needed for managing a postpartal client with preeclampsia, making them unsuitable choices for this assignment.
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