NCLEX-PN
2024 Nclex Questions
1. A twenty-one-year-old man suffered a concussion, and the MD ordered an MRI. The patient asks, 'Will they allow me to sit up during the MRI?' The correct response by the nurse should be:
- A. "I will have to talk to the doctor about letting you sit upright during the test."?
- B. "You will be positioned in the reverse Trendelenburg position to maximize the view of the brain."?
- C. "The radiologist will let you know."?
- D. "You will have to lie down on your back during the test."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the patient that they will have to lie down on their back during the MRI. This positioning is necessary for the scan to obtain accurate images of the brain. Choice A is incorrect because the decision on the positioning during the MRI is typically determined by the imaging protocol and not subject to negotiation during the test. Choice B is incorrect as the reverse Trendelenburg position is not commonly used during MRI scans. Choice C is incorrect because the radiologist does not usually make decisions on patient positioning during the MRI; it is predetermined by the imaging requirements.
2. What is the first exercise that should be performed by a client who had a mastectomy?
- A. Walking the hand up the wall
- B. Sweeping the floor
- C. Combing her hair
- D. Squeezing a ball
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Squeezing a ball. The first exercise that should be done by a client with a mastectomy is squeezing a ball. This helps in regaining strength and mobility in the affected area. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically the initial exercises recommended post-mastectomy. Walking the hand up the wall, sweeping the floor, and combing hair are activities that may be introduced later in the rehabilitation process.
3. A client is taking hydrocodone (Vicodin) for chronic back pain. The client has required an increase in the dose and asks whether this means he is addicted to Vicodin. The nurse should base her reply on the knowledge that:
- A. the client's body has developed tolerance, requiring more drug to produce the same effect.
- B. the client is preoccupied with getting the drug and is experiencing loss of control, indicating drug dependence.
- C. addiction is the term used to describe physical dependence with withdrawal symptoms and tolerance.
- D. the client has a dual diagnosis of substance abuse and chronic back pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Drug tolerance is characterized by the ability to ingest a larger dose without adverse effects and decreased sensitivity to the substance. In this scenario, the client needing an increased dose of hydrocodone to achieve the same pain relief indicates tolerance developing, not addiction. Choice B is incorrect as it describes drug dependence, where the individual is preoccupied with the drug and has a loss of control. Choice C is incorrect because addiction involves psychological behaviors related to substance use, not just physical dependence with withdrawal symptoms and tolerance. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to a dual diagnosis, which is the coexistence of substance abuse and psychiatric disorders, not the development of tolerance to a drug.
4. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?
- A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
- B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
- C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
- D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.
5. A 20-year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?
- A. The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
- B. Nausea often results from taking oral contraceptives and antibiotics.
- C. Toxicity can result when taking these two medications together.
- D. Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so the client should use an alternate method of birth control.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When antibiotics and oral contraceptives are taken together, the effectiveness of the oral contraceptives can be reduced, increasing the risk of pregnancy. Therefore, it is important to advise the client to use an alternate method of birth control to prevent unintended pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no evidence to suggest that oral contraceptives decrease the effectiveness of tetracycline, cause nausea, or result in toxicity when taken with antibiotics.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access