Nursing Elites

1. A twenty-one-year-old man suffered a concussion, and the MD ordered an MRI. The patient asks, 'Will they allow me to sit up during the MRI?' The correct response by the nurse should be:

• A. "I will have to talk to the doctor about letting you sit upright during the test."?
• B. "You will be positioned in the reverse Trendelenburg position to maximize the view of the brain."?
• C. "The radiologist will let you know."?
• D. "You will have to lie down on your back during the test."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the patient that they will have to lie down on their back during the MRI. This positioning is necessary for the scan to obtain accurate images of the brain. Choice A is incorrect because the decision on the positioning during the MRI is typically determined by the imaging protocol and not subject to negotiation during the test. Choice B is incorrect as the reverse Trendelenburg position is not commonly used during MRI scans. Choice C is incorrect because the radiologist does not usually make decisions on patient positioning during the MRI; it is predetermined by the imaging requirements.

2. A family member of a client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia asks about the prognosis. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that schizophrenia:

• A. affects both genders equally.
• B. is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.
• C. is usually diagnosed in early adulthood.
• D. does not have a clear protective hormone effect delaying diagnosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.' While choices A, C, and D contain some truths about schizophrenia, they do not directly address the prognosis aspect of the question. Schizophrenia can affect both men and women equally, is typically diagnosed in early adulthood, and does not have a known protective hormone effect that delays diagnosis. Choice B accurately reflects the chronic and fluctuating nature of the disease, which is essential for understanding its long-term course.

3. When a woman is having her first child, she is experiencing which type of crisis event?

• A. situational
• B. maturational
• C. adventitious
• D. reactive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A maturational crisis occurs when an individual reaches a new stage of development, such as becoming a parent for the first time, and needs to develop new coping strategies to adapt to this change. Situational crises (Choice A) arise from external sources, not developmental milestones. Adventitious crises (Choice C) are caused by external events like natural disasters and are not related to personal development stages. Reactive crises (Choice D) are responses to specific stressors and are not associated with developmental milestones like becoming a parent for the first time.

4. When discussing the patterns of use of alcohol and other drugs, which piece of information should the nurse include?

• A. Lifetime prevalence and intensity of alcohol use are greater in men than in women.
• B. Caucasians report higher levels of alcohol use than African Americans or Hispanics.
• C. Overuse of alcohol and other drugs increases into the mid-20s, then levels off and decreases with age.
• D. Heavy use is more common in lower socioeconomic groups due to affordability.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that overuse of alcohol and other drugs increases into the mid-20s, then levels off and decreases with age. Recent research indicates that alcohol and illicit drug use tends to rise into the mid-20s and then decline with age. Choices A and B are incorrect because lifetime prevalence and intensity of alcohol use are greater in men than in women, and Caucasians do not report higher levels of alcohol use compared to African Americans or Hispanics. Choice D is incorrect because heavy use is more common in lower socioeconomic groups due to factors like stress, coping mechanisms, and availability, not just affordability.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

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