a twenty one year old man suffered a concussion and the md ordered a mri the patient asks will they allow me to sit up during the mri the correct resp
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

2024 Nclex Questions

1. A twenty-one-year-old man suffered a concussion, and the MD ordered an MRI. The patient asks, 'Will they allow me to sit up during the MRI?' The correct response by the nurse should be:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the patient that they will have to lie down on their back during the MRI. This positioning is necessary for the scan to obtain accurate images of the brain. Choice A is incorrect because the decision on the positioning during the MRI is typically determined by the imaging protocol and not subject to negotiation during the test. Choice B is incorrect as the reverse Trendelenburg position is not commonly used during MRI scans. Choice C is incorrect because the radiologist does not usually make decisions on patient positioning during the MRI; it is predetermined by the imaging requirements.

2. A health care worker is concerned about a new mother being overwhelmed by caring for her infant. The health care worker should:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prevention of child abuse is centered on teaching parents how to care for their child and cope with the demands of infant care. Parenting classes can help build self-confidence, self-esteem, and coping skills. Parents benefit by understanding the developmental needs of their children, while learning how to manage their home environment more effectively. The classes also increase the parents' social contacts and teach about community resources. Contacting child protective services (Choice A) is not appropriate in this scenario as there is no indication of abuse or neglect. Providing literature (Choice B) may not be as effective as parenting classes in addressing the mother's concerns. Consulting a therapist (Choice C) may be beneficial for underlying mental health issues, but parenting classes specifically focus on child care and coping skills, making Choice D the most suitable option in this situation.

3. After the client discusses her relationship with her father, the nurse says, "Tell me whether I am understanding your relationship with your father. You feel dominated and controlled by him?"? This is an example of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Seeking consensual validation is the correct answer. Consensual validation is a technique used to check one's understanding of what the client has said. It involves confirming with the client whether the nurse's interpretation aligns with the client's feelings or thoughts. This process helps build rapport, trust, and a shared understanding between the nurse and the client. Verbalizing the implied (choice A) refers to expressing the underlying or implicit meaning of a client's statement. Encouraging evaluation (choice C) involves prompting the client to assess or judge a situation. Suggesting collaboration (choice D) entails proposing working together with the client on a shared goal, which is not the primary focus in the scenario provided.

4. A primary belief of psychiatric mental health nursing is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that every person is worthy of dignity and respect. This is a fundamental principle in psychiatric mental health nursing, emphasizing the importance of treating individuals with dignity and respect regardless of their condition. This belief forms the basis of establishing a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Choice A is a positive belief, but the primary focus in psychiatric mental health nursing is on respecting the worth and dignity of each individual. Choice C is related to understanding individual human needs but does not encompass the core value of dignity and respect. Choice D is incorrect as psychiatric nursing emphasizes the importance of interpreting and understanding all behaviors as meaningful expressions of the client's experience.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

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