Nursing Elites

1. A public health nurse is working with a community to improve access to mental health services. Which intervention is most likely to be effective?

• A. Setting up mental health clinics in accessible locations
• B. Distributing flyers with information about mental health services
• C. Offering transportation vouchers for mental health appointments
• D. Partnering with local businesses to promote mental health

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Setting up mental health clinics in accessible locations. This intervention is the most effective as it directly addresses the issue of access to mental health services by physically bringing the services closer to the community members. Distributing flyers (choice B) may raise awareness but does not guarantee improved access. Offering transportation vouchers (choice C) helps with transportation but does not address the primary issue of service availability. Partnering with local businesses (choice D) may help promote mental health awareness but does not ensure improved access to services like setting up clinics in accessible locations.

2. The client is unable to void, and the plan of care sets an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document to indicate a successful outcome?

• A. Drinks adequate fluids.
• B. Void without difficulty.
• C. Feels less thirsty.
• D. Drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift indicates a fluid intake of 1200 mL, which exceeds the minimum objective of at least 1000 mL. The client meeting or exceeding the fluid intake goal is a clear indicator of a successful outcome. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because simply drinking adequate fluids, voiding without difficulty, or feeling less thirsty do not directly demonstrate meeting the specific objective of fluid intake set in the care plan.

3. Which annual screening should the nurse include when planning eye health programs at a preschool?

• A. visual acuity
• B. red light reflex
• C. conjunctivitis
• D. glaucoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: visual acuity. Screening for visual acuity is essential in preschoolers to identify any vision issues early on, such as nearsightedness or farsightedness, which may require corrective lenses or other interventions. Red light reflex (choice B) is a method used to assess the eyes for abnormalities, but it is not typically included in routine preschool eye health screenings. Conjunctivitis (choice C) is an eye infection and not a screening test. Glaucoma (choice D) is a condition more commonly associated with adults and the elderly, making it less relevant for preschool eye health programs.

4. The public health nurse is called to investigate a report of several cases of chickenpox at a daycare center. The daycare worker states that five children have been sent home over the past two weeks with fever and itchy blisters. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Validate that the children sent home did develop chickenpox
• B. Report the presence of a viral endemic at the daycare center
• C. Confirm the number of children with symptoms
• D. Determine how many people have been exposed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Validating that the children sent home did develop chickenpox is the most crucial initial step for the nurse. This intervention ensures that the appropriate public health measures are implemented for the containment of chickenpox. Reporting a viral endemic or confirming the number of children with symptoms may be important but are secondary to confirming the diagnosis. Determining the number of people exposed comes after confirming the diagnosis to assess the extent of the outbreak and implement necessary control measures.

5. During the physical assessment, which finding should the nurse recognize as a normal finding?

• A. Regular pulsation at the epigastric area when the client is supine.
• B. A loud, harsh murmur at the second right intercostal space.
• C. Dullness over the lung fields.
• D. Increased tactile fremitus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The regular pulsation at the epigastric area when the client is supine is a normal finding. This phenomenon is caused by the regular and recurrent expansion and contraction of an artery due to waves of pressure caused by the ejection of blood from the left ventricle. Choices B, C, and D describe abnormal findings during a physical assessment. A loud, harsh murmur at the second right intercostal space indicates an abnormal heart sound, dullness over the lung fields may suggest consolidation or fluid in the lungs, and increased tactile fremitus can be a sign of lung consolidation or pathology.

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