Nursing Elites

1. A public health nurse is working with a community to improve access to mental health services. Which intervention is most likely to be effective?

• A. Setting up mental health clinics in accessible locations
• B. Distributing flyers with information about mental health services
• C. Offering transportation vouchers for mental health appointments
• D. Partnering with local businesses to promote mental health

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Setting up mental health clinics in accessible locations. This intervention is the most effective as it directly addresses the issue of access to mental health services by physically bringing the services closer to the community members. Distributing flyers (choice B) may raise awareness but does not guarantee improved access. Offering transportation vouchers (choice C) helps with transportation but does not address the primary issue of service availability. Partnering with local businesses (choice D) may help promote mental health awareness but does not ensure improved access to services like setting up clinics in accessible locations.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

3. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• B. Diazepam (Valium)
• C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

4. During a home health visit, the nurse notices that an older male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is wearing loose cloth slippers. The client reports that he cannot comfortably wear other shoes because his toenails get in the way. The nurse inspects the client's feet and finds long thick nails that curl down under some of the toes. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. demonstrate proper foot care to the client and family
• B. have a home health aide assist the client with hygiene weekly
• C. schedule an appointment for the client with a podiatrist
• D. trim the client's toenails gradually over several visits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Scheduling an appointment with a podiatrist is the most appropriate action in this scenario. For a client with long thick nails that curl under the toes, professional foot care by a podiatrist is necessary to prevent complications, especially in a client with diabetes mellitus. Demonstrating proper foot care (choice A) may not address the immediate need for nail trimming. Having a home health aide assist with hygiene weekly (choice B) may not be sufficient for managing the client's toenail issue effectively. Trimming the client's toenails gradually over several visits (choice D) should be performed by a professional like a podiatrist to avoid potential complications.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube to continuous suction. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypercalcemia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hyponatremia.
• D. Hypomagnesemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. When a client has a nasogastric tube to continuous suction, potassium loss through gastric fluids can lead to hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with continuous suction. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves sodium imbalance and is not directly related to nasogastric suction. Hypomagnesemia (Choice D) is not the primary concern in this situation, as potassium loss is more significant with gastric suction.

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