Nursing Elites

1. A public health nurse is working with a community to improve access to mental health services. Which intervention is most likely to be effective?

• A. Setting up mental health clinics in accessible locations
• B. Distributing flyers with information about mental health services
• C. Offering transportation vouchers for mental health appointments
• D. Partnering with local businesses to promote mental health

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Setting up mental health clinics in accessible locations. This intervention is the most effective as it directly addresses the issue of access to mental health services by physically bringing the services closer to the community members. Distributing flyers (choice B) may raise awareness but does not guarantee improved access. Offering transportation vouchers (choice C) helps with transportation but does not address the primary issue of service availability. Partnering with local businesses (choice D) may help promote mental health awareness but does not ensure improved access to services like setting up clinics in accessible locations.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most important?

• A. Restrict fluids to 1,000 mL per day.
• B. Administer a vasopressin antagonist.
• C. Monitor intake and output.
• D. Encourage a high-sodium diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a vasopressin antagonist is the most critical intervention for a client with SIADH. SIADH is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. A vasopressin antagonist helps manage the symptoms by blocking the effects of ADH, promoting water excretion, and restoring electrolyte balance. Restricting fluids (choice A) may exacerbate hyponatremia, monitoring intake and output (choice C) is important but not the most critical intervention, and encouraging a high-sodium diet (choice D) is contraindicated in SIADH due to the risk of worsening hyponatremia.

3. In conducting a health assessment for a family with a history of cardiovascular disease, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?

• A. a 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol
• B. a 17-year-old daughter who is overweight and inactive
• C. a 50-year-old mother with a history of hypertension
• D. a 12-year-old son who has a normal weight and is active

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol is at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease due to multiple risk factors. Smoking and high cholesterol are significant contributors to the development of cardiovascular issues. Prioritizing his evaluation and intervention is crucial to address these modifiable risk factors. The other family members, though they may have risk factors as well, do not present with the same level of immediate risk based on the information provided.

4. The healthcare professional is developing a safety program for older adults at a senior center. Which topic should the professional prioritize?

• A. medication management
• B. fall prevention
• C. fire safety
• D. emergency preparedness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fall prevention should be prioritized for older adults as falls are a significant cause of injury and hospitalization in this population. Addressing fall prevention measures can help reduce the risk of falls and improve the overall safety and well-being of older adults. Medication management, fire safety, and emergency preparedness are also important topics, but fall prevention takes precedence due to its direct impact on the health and safety of older adults.

5. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

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