Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is developing a program to promote healthy eating habits in a community with high rates of obesity. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. distributing educational pamphlets about nutrition
• B. offering cooking classes that focus on healthy recipes
• C. launching a social media campaign about the risks of obesity
• D. providing free health screenings at community events

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering cooking classes that focus on healthy recipes is the most effective strategy among the choices provided. These classes not only provide valuable knowledge about nutrition but also offer hands-on experience in preparing healthy meals. This practical approach can significantly impact participants' behavior and increase the likelihood of them adopting healthier eating habits. Distributing educational pamphlets may not have the same level of engagement and interaction as cooking classes. A social media campaign, while informative, may not result in direct behavioral changes. Providing free health screenings, though beneficial for early detection, does not directly address the promotion of healthy eating habits, unlike the hands-on approach of cooking classes.

2. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

• A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
• B. On the left side with legs elevated.
• C. On the right side with legs elevated.
• D. Prone with head elevated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of a myocardial infarction (heart attack) in individuals with coronary artery disease. This finding indicates that the heart muscle may not be receiving adequate oxygen, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage or complications. The other assessment findings (heart rate of 90 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg) are within normal limits and do not suggest an acute, life-threatening condition like myocardial infarction.

4. A client with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Expiratory wheezes.
• B. Increased respiratory rate.
• C. Absence of breath sounds.
• D. Frequent coughing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absence of breath sounds. This finding is concerning in a client with asthma as it may indicate a severe asthma exacerbation, airway obstruction, or pneumothorax, all of which require immediate intervention. Absence of breath sounds suggests a lack of airflow in the lungs, which is a critical sign that should prompt immediate action. Expiratory wheezes (choice A) are common in asthma and may not warrant immediate intervention unless severe. An increased respiratory rate (choice B) is expected in a client with asthma experiencing shortness of breath, but it does not indicate an immediate threat to the airway. Frequent coughing (choice D) is a common symptom in asthma exacerbations but does not signify an immediate need for intervention as it can be managed with appropriate asthma treatments.

5. The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
• B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
• C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
• D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.

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