HESI RN
Community Health HESI Quizlet
1. When planning a community health fair to promote mental health awareness, which activity should be included to best engage participants?
- A. free mental health screenings
- B. lectures on mental health topics
- C. distribution of mental health resources
- D. interactive workshops on stress management
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best activity to engage participants in a community health fair promoting mental health awareness is to offer free mental health screenings. This activity not only attracts participants but also provides them with immediate, valuable information about their mental health status. Free screenings can help raise awareness, encourage early detection of mental health issues, and prompt participants to seek further assistance if needed. Lectures, while informative, may not be as engaging or impactful as the personalized feedback individuals receive from screenings. Distributing resources is helpful, but active engagement through screenings is more effective in promoting awareness and encouraging action. Interactive workshops on stress management are beneficial but might not provide the same level of individualized insight into mental health as screenings do.
2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
- B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chest pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of a myocardial infarction (heart attack) in individuals with coronary artery disease. This finding indicates that the heart muscle may not be receiving adequate oxygen, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage or complications. The other assessment findings (heart rate of 90 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg) are within normal limits and do not suggest an acute, life-threatening condition like myocardial infarction.
3. The nurse identifies a client's needs and formulates the nursing problem of 'Imbalance nutrition: Less than body requirements, related to mental impairment and decreased intake, as evidenced by increasing confusion and weight loss of more than 30 pounds over the last 6 months.' Which short-term goal is best for this client?
- A. Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of the week.
- B. Gain 5 pounds by the end of the month.
- C. Have increased caloric intake.
- D. Show improved nutritional status.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct short-term goal for the client in this scenario is option A: 'Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of the week.' This goal is specific, measurable, and time-bound, which aligns with the SMART criteria for goal setting in nursing care. It addresses the client's nutritional needs directly, focusing on increasing meal frequency to meet body requirements and counteract weight loss. Option B, 'Gain 5 pounds by the end of the month,' is not as suitable as it lacks specificity and a short-term timeline, making it less achievable within the immediate care plan. Option C, 'Have increased caloric intake,' is vague and does not provide a measurable target for the client to work towards. Option D, 'Show improved nutritional status,' is a broad goal that lacks the specificity needed for effective short-term goal setting in nursing care. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate choice for this client's short-term goal.
4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
- B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
- C. Decreased urine output.
- D. Temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Decreased urine output in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires immediate intervention because it can indicate potential complications such as fluid overload or kidney dysfunction. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing renal function and fluid balance in patients on TPN. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours could be a concern but may not be as urgent as addressing decreased urine output. A temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C) is slightly elevated but may not be directly related to TPN administration unless there are other symptoms of infection present.
5. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed aspirin therapy. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take aspirin with food.
- B. Take aspirin at the same time every day.
- C. Avoid taking aspirin with alcohol.
- D. Discontinue aspirin if you experience ringing in your ears.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan is to avoid taking aspirin with alcohol. Combining aspirin with alcohol can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and other complications. Taking aspirin with food helps reduce stomach upset, but it is not the most crucial instruction in this scenario. While taking aspirin at the same time every day can help with consistency, it is not as critical as avoiding alcohol. Discontinuing aspirin if experiencing ringing in the ears is important to address potential side effects, but it is not directly related to preventing complications when combining with alcohol.
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