Nursing Elites

1. When planning a community health fair to promote mental health awareness, which activity should be included to best engage participants?

• A. free mental health screenings
• B. lectures on mental health topics
• C. distribution of mental health resources
• D. interactive workshops on stress management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best activity to engage participants in a community health fair promoting mental health awareness is to offer free mental health screenings. This activity not only attracts participants but also provides them with immediate, valuable information about their mental health status. Free screenings can help raise awareness, encourage early detection of mental health issues, and prompt participants to seek further assistance if needed. Lectures, while informative, may not be as engaging or impactful as the personalized feedback individuals receive from screenings. Distributing resources is helpful, but active engagement through screenings is more effective in promoting awareness and encouraging action. Interactive workshops on stress management are beneficial but might not provide the same level of individualized insight into mental health as screenings do.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?

• A. Calcium carbonate (Os-Cal)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Multivitamins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.

3. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

4. During a prenatal class for expectant mothers, what topic should be included to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby?

• A. importance of taking prenatal vitamins
• B. how to handle common discomforts of pregnancy
• C. preparing for labor and delivery
• D. breastfeeding techniques

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the importance of taking prenatal vitamins. Prenatal vitamins are crucial for the health of both the mother and the baby as they provide essential nutrients required for fetal development. While handling common discomforts of pregnancy (choice B) is important for maternal well-being, it does not directly impact the health of the baby. Preparing for labor and delivery (choice C) focuses more on the delivery process rather than the overall health of the mother and baby during pregnancy. Breastfeeding techniques (choice D) are relevant postpartum, not during the prenatal period, and do not directly impact the health of the baby during pregnancy.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/120 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Metoprolol (Lopressor).
• B. Furosemide (Lasix).
• C. Lisinopril (Zestril).
• D. Nitroprusside (Nipride).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nitroprusside (Nipride). In this scenario of severe hypertension (200/120 mm Hg), a hypertensive emergency is present, requiring rapid reduction of blood pressure. Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that acts quickly to lower blood pressure in such emergencies. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure but is not indicated for hypertensive emergencies requiring rapid reduction. B) Furosemide is a diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not rapidly lower blood pressure. C) Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used for long-term management of hypertension, not for immediate reduction in hypertensive emergencies.

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