Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new colostomy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods that cause gas.
• B. I will change my colostomy bag every week.
• C. I will use a skin barrier to protect the skin around the stoma.
• D. I will empty my colostomy bag when it is one-third full.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Changing the colostomy bag every week is not sufficient; it should be changed more frequently to prevent leakage and skin irritation. Option A is correct as avoiding foods that cause gas can help manage colostomy-related symptoms. Option C is correct as using a skin barrier helps protect the skin around the stoma. Option D is correct as emptying the colostomy bag when it is one-third full helps prevent leakage and discomfort.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Urine output is decreased.
• B. Thirst is decreased.
• C. Weight loss is observed.
• D. Urine specific gravity is within the normal range.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetes insipidus, the body loses excessive amounts of water, leading to diluted urine with low specific gravity. Therefore, when the urine specific gravity is within the normal range, it indicates that the kidneys are properly concentrating urine, which is a sign of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in diabetes insipidus, there is polyuria (excessive urination), persistent thirst due to fluid loss, and potential weight loss due to fluid imbalance, so these findings would not indicate effective treatment.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
• C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.

4. The nurse notices that the influenza immunization rate is much lower for certain demographic groups than for others. Which intervention is likely to be most useful in increasing the rates of immunization in the underserved community groups?

• A. designated clinics conveniently located in target neighborhoods
• B. reports on decreasing influenza rates during times of greatest prevalence
• C. legislative proposals that mandate influenza vaccinations for all
• D. radio announcements about the availability of the influenza vaccine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conveniently located clinics in target neighborhoods increase accessibility, making it easier for underserved community groups to receive influenza immunizations. This intervention directly addresses the issue of lower immunization rates by improving convenience and access. Reports on decreasing influenza rates (choice B) may not directly impact immunization rates. Legislative proposals mandating vaccinations (choice C) could face resistance and may not always be the most effective or practical solution. Radio announcements (choice D) may raise awareness but may not address the underlying barriers to immunization faced by underserved communities.

5. A client with a head injury is admitted to the hospital. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
• B. Pupils are equal and reactive to light.
• C. Client is drowsy but arousable.
• D. Client does not remember the events leading to the injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a head injury, being drowsy but still arousable can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which necessitates immediate intervention. This presentation may indicate a deterioration in neurological status, requiring prompt assessment and management to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of an immediate need for intervention in this scenario. A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness; pupils being equal and reactive to light suggest intact cranial nerve function, and memory loss about the injury event is common in head injuries and does not necessarily warrant immediate intervention.

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