an 80 year old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Community Health HESI 2023

1. An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants. Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants, can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in older clients. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (Choice A) do not typically cause urinary retention. Antihistamines (Choice B) may cause urinary retention but are not the primary concern in this scenario. Antibiotics (Choice D) are not associated with an increased risk of urinary retention compared to tricyclic antidepressants.

2. The public health nurse is evaluating resources in a rural community. Which healthcare resource is most important for the community?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In rural areas, accessibility to trauma care is the most critical healthcare resource due to the longer emergency response times. Trauma care can be life-saving in situations where immediate medical attention is required for severe injuries. The other options, such as a family planning center, annual health fair, and weather-related disaster plan, are important but not as crucial as trauma care in addressing urgent health needs in a rural community.

3. After coronary artery bypass graft surgery, a male client is admitted to the coronary care unit. Which nursing diagnosis is of the highest priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Impaired gas exchange is the highest priority nursing diagnosis because it directly impacts the client's oxygenation. Following coronary artery bypass graft surgery, ensuring adequate oxygen exchange is crucial for the client's recovery. Ineffective breathing pattern, although important, may not be as critical as impaired gas exchange in the immediate postoperative period. Acute pain, while significant, can be managed effectively with appropriate interventions and is not as emergent as addressing impaired gas exchange. Risk for infection is also a valid concern post-surgery, but ensuring optimal gas exchange takes precedence to prevent complications associated with inadequate oxygenation.

4. A client is suspected of being poisoned and presents with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth. The nurse should consider these findings consistent with which potential bioterrorism agent?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: botulism toxin. The symptoms described, including symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth, are classic manifestations of botulism, which is caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. This toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. Choice A, ricin, typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and organ failure. Choice C, sulfur mustard, causes blistering skin and respiratory issues. Choice D, yersinia pestis, is associated with the plague and presents with fever, chills, weakness, and swollen lymph nodes.

5. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

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