Nursing Elites

1. An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?

• A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
• B. Antihistamines.
• C. Tricyclic antidepressants.
• D. Antibiotics.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants. Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants, can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in older clients. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (Choice A) do not typically cause urinary retention. Antihistamines (Choice B) may cause urinary retention but are not the primary concern in this scenario. Antibiotics (Choice D) are not associated with an increased risk of urinary retention compared to tricyclic antidepressants.

2. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with pancreatitis. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Epigastric pain radiating to the back.
• C. Temperature of 102°F (38.9°C).
• D. Mild jaundice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 102°F (38.9°C) is the most important assessment finding to report to the healthcare provider in a client with pancreatitis and a history of alcoholism. Fever in this context can indicate infection, which is a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are common symptoms of pancreatitis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Epigastric pain radiating to the back (choice B) is a classic symptom of pancreatitis and should be addressed, but a fever takes precedence. Mild jaundice (choice D) may be present in pancreatitis but is not as urgent as a high temperature signaling possible infection.

3. The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
• B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
• C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
• D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.

4. When examining sources for funding, which criteria should the nurse clarify about the program for the community group?

• A. a prescription from the healthcare provider for each visit made
• B. documentation of a skilled care service provided during the visit
• C. a copy of the client's health history and social security card
• D. a record of the preventive healthcare services provided during the visit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because when seeking funding sources for a community outreach program, it is essential to clarify aspects related to the client's personal information, such as health history and identification details. This information helps in demonstrating the need for the program and understanding the target population. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they focus on clinical documentation, services provided during visits, and preventive healthcare services, which are not directly related to clarifying funding criteria about the program.

5. The instructor is teaching a prenatal class about the importance of folic acid. Which outcome indicates that the teaching was effective?

• A. participants can list foods high in folic acid
• B. participants plan to take folic acid supplements daily
• C. participants understand the risks of folic acid deficiency
• D. participants demonstrate how to read nutrition labels for folic acid content

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because planning to take folic acid supplements daily is a proactive step towards preventing folic acid deficiency and reducing the risk of neural tube defects in pregnancy. While choice A is important for dietary knowledge, the direct action of taking supplements is more effective. Choice C, understanding the risks, is good but does not ensure action. Choice D, reading nutrition labels, is helpful but doesn't guarantee intake of folic acid.

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