Nursing Elites

1. An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?

• A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
• B. Antihistamines.
• C. Tricyclic antidepressants.
• D. Antibiotics.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants. Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants, can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in older clients. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (Choice A) do not typically cause urinary retention. Antihistamines (Choice B) may cause urinary retention but are not the primary concern in this scenario. Antibiotics (Choice D) are not associated with an increased risk of urinary retention compared to tricyclic antidepressants.

2. The nurse is developing a community health program to address the high rates of hypertension in a neighborhood. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. conducting free blood pressure screenings
• B. distributing educational materials on hypertension
• C. holding workshops on stress management
• D. partnering with local gyms to offer discounted memberships

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting free blood pressure screenings should be prioritized as it helps identify individuals with hypertension who may not be aware of their condition. Early detection allows for timely medical intervention and management. While distributing educational materials, holding stress management workshops, and partnering with local gyms are valuable interventions, they may not directly address the immediate need for identifying undiagnosed cases of hypertension in the community.

3. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL.
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concerning sign of decreased renal perfusion and potential renal failure. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration of kidney function.\n\nChoice A (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL) is elevated but not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B (Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L) reflects metabolic acidosis, which is expected in DKA but does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg) is slightly elevated but not acutely concerning in the context of DKA.

4. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• B. Diazepam (Valium)
• C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has returned from hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Weight gain of 1 pound.
• B. Dizziness.
• C. Fatigue.
• D. Muscle cramps.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After hemodialysis, muscle cramps can indicate an electrolyte imbalance, such as low potassium or magnesium levels, which requires immediate intervention to prevent potential complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Weight gain of 1 pound, dizziness, and fatigue are common post-hemodialysis symptoms that may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless they are severe or persisting.

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