the nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which finding requires immediate intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Decreased urine output in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires immediate intervention because it can indicate potential complications such as fluid overload or kidney dysfunction. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing renal function and fluid balance in patients on TPN. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours could be a concern but may not be as urgent as addressing decreased urine output. A temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C) is slightly elevated but may not be directly related to TPN administration unless there are other symptoms of infection present.

2. The nurse is developing a community health program to address the high rates of hypertension in a neighborhood. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting free blood pressure screenings should be prioritized as it helps identify individuals with hypertension who may not be aware of their condition. Early detection allows for timely medical intervention and management. While distributing educational materials, holding stress management workshops, and partnering with local gyms are valuable interventions, they may not directly address the immediate need for identifying undiagnosed cases of hypertension in the community.

3. A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client reports drowsiness while taking clonidine, the nurse should assess how long the client has been taking the medication. Drowsiness is a common side effect that can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine. By understanding the duration of medication use, the nurse can determine if the drowsiness is a temporary effect that may decrease over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the client's dietary habits, checking for signs of infection, or evaluating the client's sleep pattern would not directly address the drowsiness associated with clonidine use.

4. A public health nurse is developing a campaign to promote breast cancer screening. Which population should be the primary target of this campaign?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is women aged 40-50. This age group is at an increased risk for breast cancer and should be the primary target for screening campaigns. Women in this age range are more likely to benefit from regular screening as early detection can lead to better outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because women aged 20-30 are generally not recommended for routine screening due to their lower risk, women aged 30-40 have a moderate risk but are not the primary target group, and women aged 50-60 should still be screened but targeting the 40-50 age group is more crucial for early detection and intervention.

5. A female client reports to the nurse that her sleep was interrupted by 'thoughts of anger towards my husband.' What type of thoughts is the client having?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obsessive. Obsessive thoughts are recurring, unwanted, and intrusive thoughts that cause distress or anxiety. In this scenario, the client is experiencing repetitive thoughts of anger towards her husband, indicating an inability to control these thoughts. Choice B, Phobic, is incorrect as phobic thoughts are related to irrational fears. Choice C, Delusional, is incorrect as delusional thoughts involve fixed false beliefs. Choice D, Paranoid, is incorrect as paranoid thoughts involve irrational suspicions and mistrust.

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