Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL.
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concerning sign of decreased renal perfusion and potential renal failure. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration of kidney function.\n\nChoice A (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL) is elevated but not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B (Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L) reflects metabolic acidosis, which is expected in DKA but does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg) is slightly elevated but not acutely concerning in the context of DKA.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will need to monitor my blood sugar levels daily.
• B. I will follow a diet low in carbohydrates.
• C. I will rotate the injection sites for my insulin.
• D. I will exercise regularly to help manage my diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The statement 'I will follow a diet low in carbohydrates' indicates a need for further teaching. In diabetes mellitus, it is essential to follow a balanced diet that includes carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Carbohydrates are a major source of energy and should be included in moderation to help manage blood sugar levels. Monitoring blood sugar levels daily (A), rotating injection sites for insulin (C), and exercising regularly (D) are all appropriate self-management strategies for individuals with diabetes mellitus.

3. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
• D. Administer intravenous furosemide (Lasix).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high Fowler's position first. This intervention helps improve breathing and oxygenation in clients with severe dyspnea, including those with heart failure. Elevating the head of the bed reduces the work of breathing and enhances lung expansion. Administering oxygen, obtaining an ECG, and administering furosemide are important interventions in the management of heart failure, but placing the client in a high Fowler's position is the priority to address the immediate need for improved breathing and oxygenation.

4. During a repeat home visit to see an 84-year-old widow, the nurse discovers that the client is unkempt, smells of stale urine, and does not recognize her neighbors or the nurse. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Call the pharmacy to determine what medications she is taking
• B. Seek the family's assistance in taking care of the client
• C. Complete a physical and mental exam on the client
• D. Call the adult protective services to obtain emergency nursing home placement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize completing a physical and mental exam on the client. This action is crucial to assess the client's health status comprehensively and identify any underlying issues contributing to her unkempt appearance, odor of stale urine, and confusion. Calling the pharmacy to determine medications (Choice A) may be important but is not the immediate priority. Seeking family assistance (Choice B) can be helpful, but the client's condition requires a thorough assessment first. While adult protective services (Choice D) may be necessary in the future, the immediate action should be to assess the client's physical and mental health status.

5. During a 2-week postoperative follow-up home visit, a female client who had gastric bypass surgery exhibits abdominal tenderness, shoulder pain, and describes feelings of malaise. Her vital signs are: T 101.8, BP 100/50, HR 104, and RR 18. Which action should the RN take?

• A. have the client transported via ambulance to the hospital
• B. recheck the client's vital signs in 30 minutes
• C. instruct the client to drive to the hospital for admission
• D. assess the client's current symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is presenting with signs of a potential postoperative complication, such as fever, low blood pressure, and tachycardia, which could indicate sepsis or another serious issue. These symptoms require immediate hospital evaluation and management. Option B of rechecking vital signs in 30 minutes could delay crucial intervention in a potentially life-threatening situation. Option C is unsafe as the client should not drive herself due to her condition. Option D is vague and does not address the urgency of the situation.

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