Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL.
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concerning sign of decreased renal perfusion and potential renal failure. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration of kidney function.\n\nChoice A (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL) is elevated but not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B (Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L) reflects metabolic acidosis, which is expected in DKA but does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg) is slightly elevated but not acutely concerning in the context of DKA.

2. When planning a community health fair to promote mental health awareness, which activity should be included to best engage participants?

• A. free mental health screenings
• B. lectures on mental health topics
• C. distribution of mental health resources
• D. interactive workshops on stress management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best activity to engage participants in a community health fair promoting mental health awareness is to offer free mental health screenings. This activity not only attracts participants but also provides them with immediate, valuable information about their mental health status. Free screenings can help raise awareness, encourage early detection of mental health issues, and prompt participants to seek further assistance if needed. Lectures, while informative, may not be as engaging or impactful as the personalized feedback individuals receive from screenings. Distributing resources is helpful, but active engagement through screenings is more effective in promoting awareness and encouraging action. Interactive workshops on stress management are beneficial but might not provide the same level of individualized insight into mental health as screenings do.

3. A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Abruptly stop the medication.
• B. Continue the medication at the same dose.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week.
• D. Increase the dose of the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gradually tapering the dose over one to two weeks should be recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia, hypertension, and ventricular dysrhythmias.

4. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with pancreatitis. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Epigastric pain radiating to the back.
• C. Temperature of 102°F (38.9°C).
• D. Mild jaundice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 102°F (38.9°C) is the most important assessment finding to report to the healthcare provider in a client with pancreatitis and a history of alcoholism. Fever in this context can indicate infection, which is a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are common symptoms of pancreatitis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Epigastric pain radiating to the back (choice B) is a classic symptom of pancreatitis and should be addressed, but a fever takes precedence. Mild jaundice (choice D) may be present in pancreatitis but is not as urgent as a high temperature signaling possible infection.

5. During which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse can the home healthcare agency expect Medicare reimbursement for documenting a skilled care service provided?

• A. 13-18 years of age
• B. 11-12 years of age
• C. 18-24 months of age
• D. 4-6 years of age

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. According to current CDC guidelines, a child receiving the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine at 12 months of age should plan to receive the MMR booster between 4-6 years of age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the CDC's recommended age range for the MMR vaccine booster. It is crucial for healthcare providers to stay updated with current guidelines to ensure the timely administration of vaccines for optimal protection.

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