Nursing Elites

1. A nurse plans care for clients with urinary incontinence. Which client is correctly paired with the appropriate intervention?

• A. A 29-year-old client after a difficult vaginal delivery – Habit training
• B. A 58-year-old postmenopausal client who is not taking estrogen therapy – Electrical stimulation
• C. A 64-year-old female with Alzheimer’s-type senile dementia – Bladder training
• D. A 77-year-old female who has difficulty ambulating – Exercise therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct pairing is a 58-year-old postmenopausal client who is not taking estrogen therapy with electrical stimulation. Electrical stimulation is used for clients with stress incontinence related to menopause and low estrogen levels. Exercise therapy improves pelvic wall strength and is not specifically for ambulation issues. Habit training is more effective for cognitively impaired clients, like those with Alzheimer's-type senile dementia. Bladder training requires the client to be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate, which may not be suitable for clients with cognitive impairments.

2. A client is to have a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy to remove a large, invasive pituitary tumor. The nurse should instruct the client that the surgery will be performed through an incision in the:

• A. Back of the mouth.
• B. Nose.
• C. Sinus channel below the right eye.
• D. Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip. A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy involves accessing the pituitary gland through an incision in the upper gingival mucosa, providing direct access to the pituitary gland without external scars. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the surgery is not performed through the back of the mouth, the nose, or the sinus channel below the right eye. It is crucial for the client to understand the specific location of the incision to ensure accurate preoperative education and expectations.

3. A client in the postanesthesia care unit has an as-needed prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). Which of the following occurrences would prompt the nurse to administer this medication to the client?

• A. Paralytic ileus
• B. Incisional pain
• C. Urine retention
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy. It is not indicated for treating paralytic ileus, incisional pain, or urine retention. Paralytic ileus is a condition of the gastrointestinal tract characterized by the paralysis of intestinal muscles, which would not be treated with ondansetron. Incisional pain is typically managed with analgesics, not antiemetics. Urine retention is a urinary issue that does not involve nausea and vomiting, making ondansetron an inappropriate choice for this condition.

4. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 mL/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion site of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine which IV medications have recently been administered.
• B. Explain that without redness or edema, there is no need to re-start the IV.
• C. Consult with the healthcare provider about the best location to start a new IV.
• D. Convert the IV to a saline lock and continue to monitor the site.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Converting the IV to a saline lock and continuing to monitor the site is the correct action in this scenario. When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site without redness or edema, it may indicate phlebitis or irritation. Replacing the IV may not be necessary if there are no signs of infection or infiltration. Determining the IV medications administered or consulting with the healthcare provider to start a new IV are not immediate actions required for pain management at the insertion site. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to convert the IV to a saline lock and closely observe for any changes or complications.

5. A client admitted from a nursing home after several recent falls needs a urine sample for culture and sensitivity. What should the nurse complete first?

• A. Obtain urine sample for culture and sensitivity.
• B. Administer intravenous antibiotics.
• C. Encourage protein intake and additional fluids.
• D. Consult physical therapy for gait training.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention is to obtain a urine sample for culture and sensitivity. Older adults with recent falls may have atypical symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI), which can present as new-onset confusion or falling. It is crucial to rule out UTI before initiating antibiotics. While administering antibiotics, encouraging protein intake, fluids, and consulting physical therapy are important interventions, they should follow the urine sample collection to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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