a nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin lanoxin to a client with heart failure which assessment finding requires immediate intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An apical pulse of 58 beats per minute is concerning when administering digoxin because digoxin can further lower the heart rate, leading to bradycardia or heart block. Immediate intervention is required to prevent potential complications. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal range and does not require immediate intervention in this context. The presence of a new murmur may indicate valvular issues but does not directly relate to the administration of digoxin. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute is also within normal limits and is not a priority concern when administering digoxin.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, INR is a more precise indicator of therapeutic levels. Serum sodium level and hemoglobin level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

3. In determining the client position for insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter, it is most important for the nurse to recognize which client condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Orthopnea. If the client is orthopneic, the nurse needs to adapt the insertion position that does not place the client in a supine position. This means the head of the bed should be elevated as much as possible to facilitate catheter insertion without compromising the client's breathing. High urinary pH (choice A) is not directly relevant to the insertion position of a urinary catheter. Abdominal ascites (choice B) may impact the procedure due to abdominal distension but is not as crucial as orthopnea. Fever (choice D) does not specifically affect the client's position for urinary catheter insertion.

4. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking over-the-counter medications. Which medication provides the greatest threat to this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with CKD, magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels due to decreased excretion by the kidneys. Therefore, it poses the greatest threat to this client population. Choice B, birth control pills, is not typically contraindicated in CKD. Choice C, cough syrup containing codeine, may require dose adjustments but is not the greatest threat. Choice D, cold medication containing alcohol, is a concern mainly in liver disease, not CKD.

5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated serum ammonia levels indicate significant liver dysfunction and an increased risk of worsening encephalopathy. Bilirubin level and prothrombin time are important in assessing liver function, but in the context of hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels take precedence as they directly contribute to neurological symptoms. Serum sodium level, though important, is not the primary concern when managing hepatic encephalopathy.

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