Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is triaging several children as they present to the emergency room after an accident. Which child requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting
• B. A 5-year-old with a broken arm
• C. A 7-year-old with minor abrasions
• D. A 9-year-old with a twisted ankle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Projectile vomiting in a child with a headache could indicate increased intracranial pressure, requiring immediate attention. Choices B, C, and D do not present with symptoms indicating potentially life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Serum sodium
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease is undergoing erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, which may lead to an increase in potassium levels, predisposing the client to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels helps in early detection of hyperkalemia and appropriate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although hemoglobin, serum sodium, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor in various clinical conditions, they are not specifically associated with erythropoietin therapy in chronic kidney disease.

3. A client with severe COPD is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client's oxygen saturation level drops to 88% during ambulation. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Instruct the client to rest until the oxygen saturation improves.
• C. Discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed.
• D. Encourage the client to breathe more deeply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's oxygen saturation level dropping during ambulation indicates an inadequate oxygen supply. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed. This helps stabilize the oxygen level by reducing the oxygen demand placed on the client during physical activity. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing the underlying issue of oxygen saturation dropping may not be effective. Instructing the client to rest is not enough to address the immediate need for stabilization of oxygen levels. Encouraging the client to breathe more deeply may not be sufficient to overcome the oxygen saturation drop caused by inadequate oxygen supply during ambulation.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Jugular venous distention
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Elevated liver enzymes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, the presence of crackles in the lungs is the most critical finding that should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. Crackles indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires prompt intervention to prevent respiratory compromise. Shortness of breath, though a common symptom in heart failure, is a result of pulmonary congestion, making crackles a more direct indicator of the severity of the condition. Jugular venous distention and elevated liver enzymes are important to assess in heart failure but are not as immediately concerning as crackles in the lungs, which directly reflect the impact of heart failure on the respiratory system.

5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• C. Administer intravenous morphine as prescribed.
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress. Loop diuretics (Choice B) may be indicated to manage fluid overload in heart failure but are not the immediate priority in this case. Administering morphine (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for shortness of breath in heart failure and should be considered after addressing oxygenation and underlying causes. Obtaining an arterial blood gas sample (Choice D) can provide valuable information but is not the initial action needed to address the client's acute respiratory distress.

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