Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, 'The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don't take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.' Which statement accurately describes the nurse's response to the client?

• A. The nurse is justified in administering the medication by way of the intramuscular route because the client has a communicable disease.
• B. The nurse could be charged with assault.
• C. Assault is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. If a nurse threatens to give a client a medication that the client refuses or threatens to give a client an injection without the client's consent, the nurse may be charged with assault. Therefore, the nurse is not justified in administering the medication. Battery is any intentional touching without the client's consent.
• D. The nurse will be justified in administering the medication by the intramuscular route once a prescription has been obtained from the health care provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer explains the concept of assault, which is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. In the scenario provided, the nurse's statement about administering the medication via an intramuscular injection without the client's consent constitutes a threat, potentially falling under the definition of assault. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's action is not automatically justified solely by the client having a communicable disease. Choice D is also incorrect because even with a prescription, the nurse cannot administer the medication without the client's consent. Choice C provides a detailed explanation distinguishing assault from battery, which helps in understanding the legal implications of the nurse's response in this situation.

2. A case manager is serving on a community task force on violence in schools. The members of the task force are planning to develop interventions to help prevent violence. According to the nursing process, which is the first activity that the case manager would suggest to the task force?

• A. Teaching schoolchildren about the dangers of school violence
• B. Conducting a community survey to assess community perceptions regarding school violence
• C. Looking at what other communities are doing about school violence
• D. Distributing flyers that identify the causes of school violence to families in the community

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to conduct a community survey to assess community perceptions regarding school violence. In the nursing process, assessment is always the first step. By conducting a survey, the task force can gather important data about how the community perceives school violence, which is essential for developing effective interventions. Choices A, C, and D involve actions that come after the assessment phase. Teaching schoolchildren about the dangers of violence and distributing flyers are important activities but should come after understanding the community's perceptions and needs. Looking at what other communities are doing is valuable but should also follow a thorough assessment of the specific community's needs and perceptions.

3. A nurse who works in a medical care unit is told that she must float to the intensive care unit because of a short-staffing problem on that unit. The nurse reports to the unit and is assigned to three clients. The nurse is angry with the assignment because she believes that the assignment is more difficult than the assignment delegated to other nurses on the unit and because the intensive care unit nurses are each assigned only one client. The nurse should most appropriately take which action?

• A. Refuse to do the assignment
• B. Tell the nurse manager to call the nursing supervisor
• C. Return to the medical care unit and discuss the assignment with the nurse manager on that unit
• D. Ask the nurse manager of the intensive care unit to discuss the assignment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse feeling that the assignment is more difficult than what other nurses received should approach the nurse manager of the intensive care unit to discuss the assignment. By doing so, the nurse can seek clarification on the rationale for the assignment or confirm if it is genuinely more challenging. Refusing the assignment is not appropriate as it could impact patient care. Returning to the medical care unit would be considered client abandonment and does not directly address the conflict at hand. Instructing the nurse manager to involve the nursing supervisor is an aggressive approach that does not directly resolve the issue.

4. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m.?

• A. delta sleep
• B. slow brain waves
• C. pneumonia
• D. circadian rhythm

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.

5. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
• B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• D. two protease inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

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