a nurse is describing the procedure for testicular self examination tse to a male client which statement should the nurse make to the client
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NCLEX-PN

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1. A male client is learning about testicular self-examination (TSE) from a nurse. Which statement should the nurse make to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is 'If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify the physician.' During a shower or bath is the best time to examine the testes because warm temperatures make the testes hang lower in the scrotum. The testes should feel round and smooth, without lumps. Self-examination should be performed monthly to detect any abnormalities early. The physician needs to be notified immediately if any abnormal findings are noticed. Choice A is incorrect because the best time for TSE is during or after a warm shower or bath, not just before. Choice C is incorrect as the testicle should feel round, smooth, and without lumps, not egg-shaped and lumpy. Choice D is incorrect as monthly self-examinations are recommended, not every 2 months.

2. All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.

3. A community health nurse is providing information to a group of older clients about measures to decrease the risk of contracting influenza during peak flu season. The nurse should provide which information?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During peak influenza season, older clients should take measures to reduce the risk of contracting the flu. The most effective preventive measure is frequent hand hygiene and refraining from touching the face, as this reduces the transmission of the flu virus. While it is advisable to avoid crowds, the direct action of hand hygiene is more impactful. Doing errands early in the morning when crowds are smaller is a good suggestion to reduce exposure but does not address the direct transmission through hands. Drinking enough fluid daily is important for overall health but does not directly reduce the risk of contracting influenza.

4. A school nurse provides information to the parents of school-age children regarding appropriate dental care. The nurse tells the parents that their children should perform which action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: School-age children are capable of taking responsibility for their own dental hygiene. Establishing good oral health habits during childhood can lead to a lifetime of cavity prevention. The nurse advises the parents that their children should brush with fluoride toothpaste and floss between their teeth after meals and before bedtime. This routine helps maintain good oral health and teaches children the importance of dental care. Choice A is the correct answer as it emphasizes both brushing and flossing after meals and at bedtime, which are crucial for effective dental care. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not stress the significance of both brushing and flossing after meals, which is essential for proper oral hygiene.

5. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

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