Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client in the labor unit who suddenly experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes. On inspecting the amniotic fluid, the nurse notes that it is clear, with creamy white flecks. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take based on this finding?

• A. Check the client's temperature.
• B. Report the findings to the nurse-midwife.
• C. Obtain a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis.
• D. Document the findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Therefore, the nurse would most appropriately document the findings. Checking the client's temperature, reporting the findings to the nurse-midwife, and obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis are not necessary in this situation. Cloudy, yellow, or foul-smelling amniotic fluid suggests infection, while green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. If abnormalities are noted, the nurse should notify the nurse-midwife.

2. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

3. When performing an eye examination, which area can a healthcare provider best visualize using an ophthalmoscope?

• A. Iris
• B. Cornea
• C. Optic disc
• D. Conjunctiva

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ophthalmoscope is a tool used to visualize the internal structures of the eye during an examination. The optic disc, located on the internal surface of the retina, can be best visualized using an ophthalmoscope. The iris, cornea, and conjunctiva are superficial structures that can be examined without the need for an ophthalmoscope. Therefore, the correct answer is the optic disc. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are external structures that can be examined directly without the use of an ophthalmoscope.

4. The nurse notes that a client in later adulthood has tremors of the hands. Based on this finding, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Ask the healthcare provider about referring the client to a neurological specialist.
• B. Obtain a prescription for a muscle relaxant.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Document the findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse observes senile tremors, such as intentional tremor of the hands in a client in later adulthood, it is important to document the findings. Senile tremors are benign and a normal age-related occurrence. Referring the client to a neurological specialist (Choice A) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require specialized neurological intervention. Prescribing a muscle relaxant (Choice B) is not indicated since senile tremors are benign and not typically treated with muscle relaxants. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require urgent intervention. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to document the findings (Choice D) for the client's medical record and to establish a baseline for future assessments.

5. A multigravida pregnant woman asks the nurse when she will start to feel fetal movements. Around which week of gestation does the nurse tell the mother that fetal movements are first noticed?

• A. 16 weeks
• B. 6 weeks
• C. 8 weeks
• D. 12 weeks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fetal movements (quickening) are first noticed by multigravida pregnant women at 16 to 20 weeks of gestation and gradually increase in frequency and strength. This is when the mother typically begins to feel the baby's movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fetal movements are not felt as early as 6, 8, or 12 weeks of gestation. At 6 weeks, the embryo's movements are not yet strong enough to be felt by the mother. By 8 weeks, the movements are still too subtle to be perceived. At 12 weeks, although fetal movements start, they are usually not strong enough to be felt by the mother.

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