Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing an 18-year-old female who has recently suffered a TBI. The nurse notes a slower pulse and impaired respiration. The nurse should report these findings immediately to the physician due to the possibility the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?

• A. Increased intracranial pressure
• B. Increased function of cranial nerve X
• C. Sympathetic response to activity
• D. Meningitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should report the slower pulse and impaired respiration to the physician immediately as they are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) following a traumatic brain injury (TBI). These signs suggest that there may be a rise in pressure within the skull, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring urgent intervention. Options B and C are unlikely in this scenario as they do not correlate with the symptoms presented. Meningitis (Option D) typically presents with different signs and symptoms, such as fever, headache, and neck stiffness, which are not described in the patient's case.

2. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?

• A. Shock
• B. Nephrotoxic drugs
• C. Enlarged prostate
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Shock.' Acute renal failure is commonly caused by inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, which can occur in cases of shock. This leads to decreased kidney function and potential kidney damage. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is the primary and most common cause. An enlarged prostate may lead to obstructive uropathy but is not the most prevalent cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes is typically associated with chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with full-thickness burns to the left arm and trunk. What is the priority for this client?

• A. Pain management
• B. Airway assessment
• C. Fluid volume status monitoring
• D. Risk for infection prevention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! With full-thickness burns, there is a significant risk of fluid loss through the burn wound and fluid shift, leading to hypovolemia and shock. Monitoring and maintaining the client's fluid volume status is crucial to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock. Pain management (Option A) is essential but not the priority in this situation. While airway assessment (Option B) is crucial, it is typically assessed first in clients with respiratory distress. Preventing infection (Option D) is important but managing fluid volume status takes precedence in the initial care of a client with full-thickness burns.

4. Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?

• A. anemia
• B. edema
• C. painless vaginal bleeding
• D. fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.

5. The nurse is caring for a client complaining of intense headaches with increasing pain for the past one month. An MRI is ordered. In reviewing the client's information, which piece of information is of concern?

• A. Allergy to shellfish
• B. Has a cardiac pacemaker
• C. A diabetic
• D. No IV access

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Has a cardiac pacemaker.' If a client with a cardiac pacemaker undergoes an MRI, the magnetic field can interfere with the pacemaker's function, leading to serious complications or even death. It is crucial to ensure that the pacemaker is compatible with MRI imaging or to consider alternative imaging modalities. The other choices, such as 'Allergy to shellfish,' 'A diabetic,' and 'No IV access,' are not direct contraindications for an MRI scan and do not pose the same level of risk as having a cardiac pacemaker.

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