NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
- C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
- D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.
2. The client has an order for 0.45 mg of Diltiazem. The medication vial has a concentration of 3 mg/mL. How many mL of the drug should be administered?
- A. 0.15 mL
- B. 6.6 mL
- C. 1.5 mL
- D. 0.65 Ml
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the amount of drug to be administered, divide the ordered dose by the concentration of the medication in the vial. In this case, 0.45 mg � 3 mg/mL = 0.15 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.15 mL. Choice B (6.6 mL) is incorrect as it does not result from the correct calculation. Choice C (1.5 mL) is incorrect as it is not the result of dividing the ordered dose by the concentration. Choice D (0.65 mL) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
3. At a health screening clinic, a nurse is educating a young woman about breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse determines that the client demonstrates understanding when she makes which statement?
- A. BSE should be performed monthly after the menstrual period.
- B. BSE is performed after the menstrual period.
- C. Monthly BSE is a recommended method for early detection of breast cancer.
- D. Monthly BSE includes inspection before a mirror and palpation both in the shower and while lying down.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Monthly BSE includes inspection before a mirror and palpation both in the shower and while lying down.' BSE should be performed monthly after the menstrual period, not every other month or on the day menstruation begins. Performing BSE on the seventh day of the menstrual cycle when the breasts are smallest and least congested is recommended. While BSE is a useful tool for early detection, it is not the only method. Regular physical examinations and mammograms are also important. The correct technique for BSE includes inspecting the breasts in front of a mirror, palpating in the shower for easier detection, and conducting palpation while lying down for thorough examination.
4. The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?
- A. Tylenol
- B. Tramadol
- C. Codeine
- D. Morphine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Morphine is the least appropriate choice for pain management in pancreatitis due to its potential to cause spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi, which can worsen the client's condition by potentially obstructing the pancreatic duct. Tylenol, Tramadol, and Codeine are more suitable options for pain management in acute pancreatitis as they do not carry the same risk of exacerbating the condition by causing spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.
5. A 17-year-old female was raped by a young man in her neighborhood. She is in the Emergency Department for evaluation and tests. After the procedure is completed, a rape crisis counselor (nurse specialist) talks to the client in a conference room regarding the rape. Implementing counseling by the nurse specialist for the raped victim represents:
- A. assessment.
- B. crisis intervention.
- C. empathetic concern.
- D. unwarranted intrusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Crisis intervention is the correct choice. Counseling by a nurse specialist after a traumatic event like rape falls under the Crisis Intervention Model. This approach aims to provide immediate support to individuals facing a crisis to enhance coping mechanisms. In this scenario, the nurse specialist is offering specialized care tailored to rape victims, helping the client navigate through the emotional aftermath of the traumatic experience. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A is not the correct answer as the nurse specialist is providing emotional support rather than conducting an assessment; C, while important, does not fully capture the specialized intervention being provided; and D is inaccurate as the nurse specialist's intervention is warranted and essential for the victim's well-being.
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