a nurse assesses clients on the medical surgical unit which clients are at risk for kidney problems select all that apply
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam

1. Which clients are at risk for kidney problems? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients who take synthetic creatine supplements, metformin, and high-dose or long-term NSAIDs are at risk for kidney dysfunction. Synthetic creatine supplements can cause kidney damage, metformin may rarely cause lactic acidosis leading to renal impairment, and high-dose NSAIDs can lead to acute kidney injury. Prenatal vitamins and albuterol nebulizers are not known to significantly impact kidney function, thus do not pose a risk for kidney problems.

2. What information will the nurse provide when counseling a patient starting a sulfonamide drug for a urinary tract infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drink several quarts of water daily. This advice aims to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of sulfonamide drugs. Option B is incorrect because antacids should not be taken with sulfonamides as they can decrease drug absorption. Option C is incorrect as sulfonamides can increase sensitivity to sunlight, not requiring sun exposure limitations but sun protection measures. Option D is incorrect because a sore throat could indicate a more serious adverse effect and should be promptly reported for evaluation.

3. A client has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.51, PCO2 31 mm Hg, PO2 94 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ABG results show a pH above the normal range (7.35-7.45) and a decreased PCO2, indicating respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, the pH is increased and the PCO2 is decreased. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) would present with a low pH and low HCO3 levels. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) would show an increased pH and HCO3 levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice C) would have a low pH and an increased PCO2.

4. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates a reduced glomerular filtration rate. In a healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min. A GFR of 40 mL/min signifies a significant reduction, leading to fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to excess vascular fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as a GFR of 40 mL/min is not excessive but rather reduced. Choices C and D do not directly address the interpretation of GFR but instead describe potential consequences of a reduced GFR.

5. The client has been managing angina episodes with nitroglycerin. Which of the following indicates the drug is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption, which helps to reduce chest pain caused by angina. Therefore, a reduction in chest pain is a positive indicator of the drug's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not typically increase blood pressure or heart rate; instead, it often causes a decrease in blood pressure due to vasodilation and may cause a reflex tachycardia (increased heart rate) as a compensatory response to lowered blood pressure.

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