Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to be seen in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Hypernatremia.
• B. Hyperkalemia.
• C. Hypocalcemia.
• D. Hypokalemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, hyperkalemia is the most common electrolyte imbalance due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete potassium. This impaired kidney function leads to potassium retention in the body, resulting in elevated serum potassium levels. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys typically still function to regulate sodium levels. Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) is not a prominent electrolyte imbalance in chronic kidney disease unless there are additional factors involved. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) is less common in chronic kidney disease, as the primary issue is usually potassium retention rather than deficiency.

2. A 20-year-old female client calls the nurse to report a lump she found in her breast. Which response is the best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Check it again in one month, and if it is still there schedule an appointment.
• B. Most lumps are benign, but it is always best to come in for an examination.
• C. Try not to worry too much about it, because usually, most lumps are benign.
• D. If you are in your menstrual period it is not a good time to check for lumps.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse advising the client to come in provides the best response because it addresses the client's anxiety most effectively and encourages prompt and immediate action for a potential problem.

3. A client who was in a motor vehicle collision was admitted to the hospital, and the right knee was placed in skeletal traction. The nurse has documented this nursing diagnosis in the client's medical record: 'Potential for impairment of skin integrity related to immobility from traction.' Which nursing intervention is indicated based on this diagnosis statement?

• A. Release the traction every 4 hours to provide skin care.
• B. Turn the client for back care while suspending traction.
• C. Provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction.
• D. Give back care after the client is released from traction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention indicated based on the nursing diagnosis 'Potential for impairment of skin integrity related to immobility from traction' is to provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction. This intervention is crucial for maintaining the client's skin integrity and preventing potential complications. Releasing the traction every 4 hours (Choice A) may disrupt the treatment plan and compromise the effectiveness of traction. Turning the client for back care while suspending traction (Choice B) does not address the need for skin care while the client is in traction. Giving back care after the client is released from traction (Choice D) neglects the immediate need to prevent skin impairment while in traction. Therefore, providing back and skin care while maintaining the traction (Choice C) is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario.

4. A client who is scheduled for cardiac catheterization to rule out coronary occlusion should be informed by the nurse that:

• A. The procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department
• B. It is necessary to lie quietly on a hard x-ray table for about 4 hours
• C. The room is bright and well lit, and it is best to keep the eyes closed
• D. The client may have feelings of warmth or flushing during the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before cardiac catheterization, the nurse should inform the client that the procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department, not the operating room. The client should expect to lie still on an x-ray table for the duration of the procedure, not necessarily for about 4 hours. Keeping the eyes closed is not necessary as the room is usually dimly lit. The client may experience sensations of warmth or flushing during the procedure due to catheter passage and dye injection, making choice D the correct answer.

5. A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?

• A. Propranolol (Inderal).
• B. Captopril (Capoten).
• C. Furosemide (Lasix).
• D. Dobutamine (Dobutrex).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent that acts to decrease heart rate and contractility. Sinus bradycardia is a common side effect of beta blockers due to their negative chronotropic effect on the heart. Captopril (Capoten) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not associated with causing bradycardia. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to electrolyte imbalances but not commonly linked to bradycardia. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that increases heart rate and contractility, making it an unlikely cause of bradycardia in this scenario.

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