Nursing Elites

1. After reviewing the child's immunization record, which scheduled vaccine should the nurse prepare to administer next?

• A. Hib
• B. IPV
• C. MMR
• D. DTaP

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is DTaP. DTaP is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age; between 15 and 18 months of age; and between 4 and 6 years of age. Since the child has only received three doses of this vaccine, the next dose of DTaP should be administered. The other options are incorrect because Hib is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 12 and 15 months; IPV is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 4 and 6 years of age; MMR is administered between 12 and 15 months of age and again between 4 and 6 years of age.

2. A pregnant client tells the nurse that she has a 2-year-old child at home and expresses concern about how the toddler will adapt to a newborn infant being brought into the home. Which statement is the most appropriate response for the nurse to make to the client?

• A. If your 2-year-old becomes angry or jealous, you should consider preparing the child for the new sibling rather than seeking psychological intervention.
• B. Don't worry; every 2-year-old may need time to adjust to a newborn sibling.
• C. Even though a 2-year-old may have little perception of time, any changes in sleeping arrangements for the newborn should be made several weeks before birth.
• D. A 2-year-old toddler focuses on exploring the environment, but it's important to prepare the child for the new sibling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response by the nurse is, 'Even though a 2-year-old may have little perception of time, any changes in sleeping arrangements for the newborn should be made several weeks before birth.' Toddlers are generally unaware of the changes during pregnancy and may not understand the impending arrival of a new sibling. It is essential to prepare the child gradually for the new baby's arrival by making any necessary changes in sleeping arrangements beforehand. Expecting a young child to immediately welcome a new sibling without prior preparation is unrealistic. Option A is incorrect as suggesting psychological intervention prematurely is not appropriate. Option B is incorrect as assuming all 2-year-olds would immediately welcome a newborn is unrealistic. Option D is incorrect as dismissing the concerns without addressing the need for preparation is not appropriate in this situation.

3. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old client. What is the most appropriate pain scale for the nurse to use during the assessment?

• A. McGill Pain Scale
• B. FLACC Pain Scale
• C. CRIES Pain Scale
• D. Wong-Baker Pain Scale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the Wong-Baker Pain Scale. This scale is specifically designed for pediatric clients, including children as young as 3 years old, making it the most appropriate choice for a 4-year-old. It utilizes a simple visual scale with facial expressions that children can easily understand and use to express their pain levels. The FLACC and CRIES Pain Scales are also used for pediatric clients but are more focused on non-verbal cues and specific populations like infants or critically ill children. The McGill Pain Scale, on the other hand, is more complex and uses descriptive words, making it more suitable for adult clients who can better articulate their pain experiences.

4. To improve overall health, the nurse should place the highest priority on assisting a client to make lifestyle changes for which of the following habits?

• A. drinking a six-pack of beer each day
• B. eating an occasional chocolate bar
• C. exercising twice a week
• D. using relaxation exercises to deal with stress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To improve overall health, the nurse should prioritize assisting the client in making lifestyle changes that have the most significant impact on health. Drinking a six-pack of beer each day can have serious negative effects on health, including liver damage, increased risk of chronic diseases, and addiction. By addressing this habit first, the nurse can make a substantial positive difference in the client's health. Eating an occasional chocolate bar, exercising twice a week, and using relaxation exercises to deal with stress are beneficial habits, but they are not as detrimental to health as excessive alcohol consumption. Therefore, they are not the highest priority for immediate lifestyle changes to improve health.

5. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

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