Nursing Elites

1. When a male client mentions his foot is hurting while watching TV with his wife, how should the nurse respond?

• A. Ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• B. Encourage him to wait until bedtime for the pill to help him sleep.
• C. Attend to an acutely ill client's needs first as the client is laughing.
• D. Instruct him in the use of deep breathing exercises for pain control.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10. This helps the nurse assess the intensity of the pain and determine the appropriate pain medication. Encouraging him to wait or attend to another client's needs first are incorrect because pain management should be addressed promptly. Instructing on deep breathing exercises may be helpful but is not the initial step in addressing acute pain.

2. When culturing a wound, the nurse should obtain the sample from which part of the wound?

• A. The outer edges of the wound.
• B. All necrotic sections of the wound.
• C. Areas containing purulent or pooled exudates.
• D. Any particularly painful area of the wound.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To collect a wound culture, the nurse should first clean the wound to remove skin flora and then insert a sterile swab from a culturette tube into the wound secretions.

3. A client with a suspected kidney infection is admitted to the hospital for observation. Which action should the nurse implement to assess the client’s kidney function?

• A. Monitor the client’s urine output
• B. Check for abdominal tenderness
• C. Evaluate the client’s fluid intake
• D. Inspect the client’s skin for edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring urine output is the most direct way to assess kidney function as it provides crucial information about the kidneys’ ability to filter waste and produce urine. Changes in urine output can indicate potential issues with kidney function, such as decreased filtration or impaired excretion of waste products.

4. A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]

• A. 4 tablets
• B. 3 tablets
• C. 2 tablets
• D. 1 tablet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg ÷ 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.

5. The nurse-manager of a skilled nursing (chronic care) unit is instructing UAPs on ways to prevent complications of immobility. Which intervention should be included in this instruction?

• A. Perform range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures.
• B. Decrease the client's fluid intake to prevent diarrhea.
• C. Massage the client's legs to reduce the occurrence of embolisms.
• D. Turn the client from side to back every shift.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing range-of-motion exercises is essential in preventing contractures, which are common complications of immobility. These exercises help maintain joint flexibility and muscle strength, reducing the risk of contractures that can lead to functional limitations or pain for the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fluid intake does not prevent immobility complications, but it can lead to dehydration. Massaging the client's legs does not directly address the prevention of immobility complications like contractures. Turning the client from side to back every shift is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address complications of immobility like contractures.

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