Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased oxygen saturation.
• B. Decreased respiratory rate.
• C. Absence of audible wheezing.
• D. Improved exercise tolerance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased oxygen saturation (A) is the most direct indicator of the effectiveness of albuterol (Proventil) in improving breathing. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, showing that the albuterol is helping with air exchange in the lungs. While decreased respiratory rate (B), absence of audible wheezing (C), and improved exercise tolerance (D) are positive outcomes, they are secondary to oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation directly reflects the improvement in the client's respiratory status and the effectiveness of the medication.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer 2 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which action should the nurse implement to ensure the client’s safety?

• A. Obtain informed consent from the client for the PRBC transfusion
• B. Review the client’s medical history for a history of transfusion reactions
• C. Assess the client’s baseline vital signs before starting the transfusion
• D. Verify the blood type and crossmatch with another licensed nurse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verifying the blood type and crossmatch with another licensed nurse is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions and ensure the client's safety. This step helps confirm that the correct blood type is being transfused to the client, reducing the risk of adverse reactions and promoting safe care. Obtaining informed consent (Choice A) is important but not directly related to ensuring the safety of the transfusion. Reviewing the client's medical history for transfusion reactions (Choice B) is relevant but not as crucial as verifying the blood type and crossmatching. Assessing baseline vital signs (Choice C) is a routine practice before transfusion but ensuring the correct blood type is a higher priority.

3. A client is 2 days post-op from thoracic surgery and is complaining of incisional pain. The client last received pain medication 2 hours ago. He is rating his pain as a 5 on a 1-10 scale. After calling the provider, what is the nurse's next action?

• A. Instruct the client to use guided imagery and slow rhythmic breathing
• B. Provide at least 20 minutes of back massage and gentle effleurage
• C. Encourage the client to watch TV
• D. Place a hot water circulation device, such as an Aqua K pad, to the operative site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, since no additional pain medication is available, the nurse should recommend non-pharmacological pain management techniques. Guided imagery and slow rhythmic breathing can help the client manage incisional pain effectively. These techniques can provide distraction and relaxation, potentially reducing the perception of pain without the need for additional medication.

4. When assessing a client with a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit, the nurse notes that the client's skin over the sternum 'tents' when gently pinched. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Confirm the finding by further assessing the client for jugular vein distention.
• B. Offer the client high-protein snacks between regularly scheduled mealtimes.
• C. Continue the planned nursing interventions to restore the client's fluid volume.
• D. Change the plan of care to include interventions for impaired skin integrity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse observes that the client's skin over the sternum 'tents' when gently pinched, it is a classic sign of fluid volume deficit. This finding indicates dehydration and the need to restore the client's fluid volume. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse is to continue the planned nursing interventions aimed at addressing the fluid deficit. Choice A is incorrect as jugular vein distention is associated with fluid overload, not deficit. Choice B is incorrect as offering high-protein snacks does not directly address the fluid volume deficit. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to address the fluid deficit before addressing skin integrity issues.

5. A client has a nursing diagnosis of Altered sleep patterns related to nocturia. Which client instruction is important for the nurse to provide?

• A. Decrease intake of fluids after the evening meal.
• B. Drink a glass of cranberry juice every day.
• C. Drink a glass of warm decaffeinated beverage at bedtime.
• D. Consult the healthcare provider about a sleeping pill.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to decrease intake of fluids after the evening meal. By reducing fluid intake before bedtime, the client can minimize the need to void during the night, which can help improve sleep patterns affected by nocturia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking cranberry juice or warm decaffeinated beverage at bedtime may increase fluid intake, exacerbating the nocturia issue. Consulting the healthcare provider about a sleeping pill should not be the first intervention, as it is important to try non-pharmacological approaches first.

Similar Questions