Nursing Elites

1. A community health nurse is conducting a program evaluation for a diabetes management class. Which measure best indicates the program's effectiveness?

• A. Number of participants attending each session
• B. Participant satisfaction with the class
• C. Reduction in participants' average blood glucose levels
• D. Improvement in participants' knowledge about diabetes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most effective measure to indicate the program's effectiveness in a diabetes management class is the reduction in participants' average blood glucose levels. This measure directly reflects the impact of the program on managing diabetes and improving health outcomes. Choices A and B may provide valuable information but do not directly assess the program's impact on managing diabetes. Choice D, improvement in participants' knowledge about diabetes, is important but may not directly translate into improved diabetes management without actual health outcome measurements like blood glucose levels.

2. When caring for a client with a chest tube, which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care?

• A. Maintain continuous suction on the chest tube.
• B. Clamp the chest tube during client movement.
• C. Ensure that the chest tube is clamped for at least 8 hours each day.
• D. Keep the collection chamber below the level of the chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Keeping the collection chamber below the level of the chest is crucial in caring for a client with a chest tube. This positioning helps ensure proper drainage of fluids and prevents complications such as backflow of drainage into the chest cavity. Option A is incorrect as continuous suction can lead to excessive drainage and tissue damage. Option B is incorrect as clamping the chest tube during client movement can cause a buildup of pressure and compromise proper drainage. Option C is incorrect because clamping the chest tube for extended periods can impede the drainage process, leading to potential complications.

3. The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
• B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
• C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
• D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.

4. Which intervention by the community health nurse is an example of a secondary level of prevention?

• A. providing a needle exchange program at a community mental health clinic
• B. developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus
• C. administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home
• D. initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, administering influenza vaccines helps prevent the spread of the flu among vulnerable individuals. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of secondary prevention. Providing a needle exchange program (Choice A) is a harm reduction strategy (tertiary prevention). Developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus (Choice B) focuses on health promotion and primary prevention. Initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client (Choice D) is a measure to prevent further transmission of the disease but is more aligned with tertiary prevention.

5. A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is least likely to exacerbate asthma?

• A. Pindolol (Visken)
• B. Carteolol (Ocupress)
• C. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor)
• D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor). Metoprolol is a beta2 blocking agent that is cardioselective and less likely to cause bronchoconstriction, making it a suitable antihypertensive option for clients with asthma. Choices A, B, and D are non-selective beta-blockers which can potentially exacerbate asthma symptoms by causing bronchoconstriction.

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