Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 60 mg/dL.
• B. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• C. Tremors.
• D. Diaphoresis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a history of diabetes mellitus admitted with hypoglycemia, the finding that requires immediate intervention is tremors. Tremors can indicate severe hypoglycemia, which needs prompt attention to prevent complications such as seizures or loss of consciousness. While a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL is low, the presence of tremors signifies a more urgent situation. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute and diaphoresis are common physiological responses to hypoglycemia and do not necessarily require immediate intervention unless other severe symptoms are present.

2. Which client has the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia?

• A. a 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children
• B. a 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing
• C. a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes
• D. a 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This client has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to multiple factors such as homelessness, substance abuse, and smoking. Homelessness can lead to poor living conditions and limited access to healthcare, increasing susceptibility to infections. Alcoholism and smoking weaken the immune system, making individuals more vulnerable to respiratory infections like pneumonia. Choices A, B, and D do not present the same level of risk factors for pneumonia compared to choice C.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to expectorate secretions easily.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
• D. The client's arterial blood gases show a pH of 7.35.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy, an effective response is indicated by a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. This suggests that the client is effectively oxygenating while maintaining an appropriate respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because expectorating secretions easily, having an oxygen saturation of 92%, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of oxygen therapy in COPD. Oxygen saturation of 92% may still be suboptimal in COPD, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 may not necessarily reflect the overall effectiveness of oxygen therapy.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hypokalemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Muscle weakness.
• B. Irregular heart rate.
• C. Increased urinary output.
• D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Decreased deep tendon reflexes are a critical finding in hypokalemia that indicates severe potassium deficiency affecting neuromuscular function. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent life-threatening complications such as respiratory failure or cardiac arrhythmias. Muscle weakness, irregular heart rate, and increased urinary output are also associated with hypokalemia but do not pose the same level of urgency as decreased deep tendon reflexes.

5. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.
• B. Remove the brace while sleeping.
• C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.
• D. Remove the brace while eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

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