Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 60 mg/dL.
• B. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• C. Tremors.
• D. Diaphoresis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a history of diabetes mellitus admitted with hypoglycemia, the finding that requires immediate intervention is tremors. Tremors can indicate severe hypoglycemia, which needs prompt attention to prevent complications such as seizures or loss of consciousness. While a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL is low, the presence of tremors signifies a more urgent situation. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute and diaphoresis are common physiological responses to hypoglycemia and do not necessarily require immediate intervention unless other severe symptoms are present.

2. The healthcare professional is conducting a community assessment to identify health needs. Which method is most effective for gathering comprehensive data?

• A. conducting focus groups with community members
• B. reviewing local health department reports
• C. surveying healthcare providers in the area
• D. analyzing hospital admission records

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting focus groups with community members is the most effective method for gathering comprehensive data during a community assessment. This approach allows direct interaction with community members, fostering in-depth discussions that provide insights into the specific health needs and concerns of the community. Choice B, reviewing local health department reports, may offer valuable data but might not capture the nuanced perspectives and experiences of community members. Choice C, surveying healthcare providers, provides insights from a professional standpoint but may not fully represent the community's diverse health needs. Choice D, analyzing hospital admission records, offers information on healthcare utilization but may overlook important social determinants of health and community-specific issues that can only be addressed through direct engagement with community members.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who complains of weight loss, racing heart rate, and difficulty sleeping. The nurse determines the client has moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid retraction, and a staring expression. These findings are consistent with which disorder?

• A. Graves' disease.
• B. Cushing's syndrome.
• C. Addison's disease.
• D. Hypothyroidism.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Graves' disease. The symptoms described in the client are classic manifestations of hyperthyroidism, which is commonly caused by Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid. Weight loss, racing heart rate, difficulty sleeping, moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid retraction, and a staring expression are all indicative of hyperthyroidism. Choice B, Cushing's syndrome, is characterized by weight gain, hypertension, and a rounded face due to excess cortisol. Choice C, Addison's disease, presents with symptoms such as weight loss, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation due to adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, hypothyroidism, typically features symptoms opposite to those described in the client, such as weight gain, bradycardia, and dry skin.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

5. A school nurse is planning a program to address bullying among students. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. Implementing a zero-tolerance policy for bullying
• B. Conducting peer mediation sessions
• C. Providing workshops on conflict resolution
• D. Promoting bystander intervention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Promoting bystander intervention is the most effective strategy as it empowers students to take action and prevent bullying incidents. By encouraging bystanders to intervene when they witness bullying, the behavior is less likely to continue. Zero-tolerance policies may have limited effectiveness as they often focus on punishment rather than prevention. Peer mediation and conflict resolution workshops are valuable but may not directly address the immediate need for bystander intervention in bullying situations.

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