Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) medication to a client. Which action should the healthcare provider take first?

• A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
• B. Check the client's allergy status.
• C. Prepare the medication for administration.
• D. Administer the medication at the prescribed rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the client's allergy status is the priority before administering any medication, especially intravenously. This step helps identify any potential allergic reactions and prevents harm to the client. Verifying the client's identity using two identifiers is important but not the first step in medication administration. Preparing the medication for administration and administering the medication at the prescribed rate come after ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies.

2. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Amylase of 120 U/L.
• B. Lipase of 150 U/L.
• C. Calcium of 8.5 mg/dL.
• D. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL.' In a client with acute pancreatitis, elevated blood glucose levels can indicate poor control of diabetes or stress response from the acute illness. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent complications like worsening pancreatitis, infections, or other metabolic issues. Choices A and B, 'Amylase of 120 U/L' and 'Lipase of 150 U/L,' are commonly elevated in pancreatitis but do not require immediate intervention unless significantly elevated. Choice C, 'Calcium of 8.5 mg/dL,' is within the normal range and not a priority in this scenario.

3. The client, who is 6 weeks pregnant, is being educated by the nurse on prenatal care. Which statement indicates that the client comprehends the nurse's instructions?

• A. I will increase my intake of vitamin C.
• B. I will avoid alcohol and tobacco.
• C. I will need to take folic acid supplements.
• D. I will avoid taking any medication without consulting my healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During pregnancy, it is crucial to avoid taking any medication without consulting a healthcare provider to prevent harm to the developing fetus. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects of prenatal care but do not specifically address the potential risks associated with taking medications during pregnancy. Increasing intake of vitamin C (Choice A) is beneficial but does not address medication safety. Avoiding alcohol and tobacco (Choice B) is essential, but the question focuses on medication safety. Taking folic acid supplements (Choice C) is vital for neural tube development but does not cover the broader topic of medication safety.

4. A client with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Expiratory wheezes.
• B. Increased respiratory rate.
• C. Absence of breath sounds.
• D. Frequent coughing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absence of breath sounds. This finding is concerning in a client with asthma as it may indicate a severe asthma exacerbation, airway obstruction, or pneumothorax, all of which require immediate intervention. Absence of breath sounds suggests a lack of airflow in the lungs, which is a critical sign that should prompt immediate action. Expiratory wheezes (choice A) are common in asthma and may not warrant immediate intervention unless severe. An increased respiratory rate (choice B) is expected in a client with asthma experiencing shortness of breath, but it does not indicate an immediate threat to the airway. Frequent coughing (choice D) is a common symptom in asthma exacerbations but does not signify an immediate need for intervention as it can be managed with appropriate asthma treatments.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.5 g/dL.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL.
• D. Serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL. An elevated serum ammonia level indicates hepatic dysfunction and can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Options A, B, and C are within normal ranges or slightly abnormal values for clients with cirrhosis and do not pose an immediate threat. Serum albumin levels may indicate malnutrition, prothrombin time may reflect liver synthetic function, and hemoglobin levels can be affected by various factors but do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

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