HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed lithium carbonate. Which finding should the RN report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Serum lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 16 mg/dL
- C. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- D. Urine output of 800 mL in 24 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Elevated BUN levels may indicate renal impairment, which is crucial to report for clients on lithium due to its potential kidney effects. Option A, a serum lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L, is within the therapeutic range for lithium and does not require immediate reporting. Option C, a serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and not directly related to lithium therapy. Option D, urine output of 800 mL in 24 hours, may indicate a need for further assessment but is not the most critical finding to report compared to potential renal impairment indicated by an elevated BUN level.
2. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?
- A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
- B. Administer a PRN sedative.
- C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.
3. The client is being educated by the healthcare provider about starting a prescribed abstinence therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client understand?
- A. Maintain complete abstinence from alcohol consumption.
- B. Stay alcohol-free for at least 12 hours before the first dose.
- C. Participate in monthly therapy sessions.
- D. Disclose to others that he is receiving disulfiram therapy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Before starting disulfiram therapy (Antabuse), the client must comprehend the need to remain alcohol-free for a minimum of 12 hours. This is crucial to prevent the unpleasant and potentially dangerous reactions that can occur with concurrent alcohol consumption while on disulfiram. Choice A is incorrect because it mentions heroin or cocaine use, which is not the primary focus when initiating disulfiram therapy. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests therapy sessions, which are not specifically required before starting disulfiram. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to disclose disulfiram therapy to others, but rather to adhere to the abstinence requirement.
4. Pablo is a homeless adult who has no family connections. Pablo passed out on the street, and emergency medical services took him to the hospital where he expresses a wish to die. The physician recognizes evidence of substance use problems and mental health issues and recommends inpatient treatment for Pablo. What is the rationale for this treatment choice? Select all that apply.
- A. Intermittent supervision is available in inpatient settings.
- B. He requires stabilization of multiple symptoms.
- C. He has nutritional and self-care needs.
- D. Medication adherence will be mandated.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In inpatient settings, there is continuous supervision available, ensuring safety and comprehensive care for individuals like Pablo who may be at risk due to substance use problems, mental health issues, and expressing a wish to die. Choice B is incorrect because the need for stabilization of multiple symptoms alone is not the primary rationale for inpatient treatment. Choice C is incorrect as although self-care and nutritional needs are important, they do not solely justify inpatient treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while medication adherence can be monitored in inpatient settings, it is not the primary rationale for choosing inpatient treatment for Pablo in this scenario.
5. During an admission assessment and interview, which channels of information communication should the healthcare professional be monitoring? Select all that apply.
- A. Auditory
- B. Visual
- C. Written
- D. Tactile
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During an admission assessment and interview, healthcare professionals should monitor auditory, visual, and non-verbal cues. Auditory communication involves listening to the patient's spoken words, tone of voice, and any other sounds they make. Visual communication includes observing the patient's facial expressions, body language, and gestures. Written communication, such as forms or notes, may also provide valuable information. Tactile communication pertains to touch, which is not typically utilized during an admission interview setting. While all channels of communication are important, in this context, auditory cues are particularly crucial for gathering verbal information during the assessment process, making choice A the correct answer. Visual cues and written information are also significant but may not be as critical as auditory cues during an interview. Tactile communication is generally not a primary channel used during a standard admission assessment and interview, hence it is not a key focus in this scenario.
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