a client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit to best prepare for the clients arrival the nurse should ensure that the clients bed is in
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.

2. An adolescent with intellectual disability is admitted for refusing to complete oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best reinforcement strategy in this scenario is providing preferred activities or tokens for compliance. Positive reinforcement is effective in behavior modification programs for individuals with intellectual disabilities. Offering preferred activities or tokens serves as a reward for completing the desired behavior, in this case, oral hygiene tasks. Choices A, B, and C do not focus on reinforcing the desired behavior with positive incentives. Choice A does not provide a positive reinforcement for compliance but rather focuses on the omission of a task. Choice B uses candy, which may not be ideal for oral hygiene. Choice C involves punishment rather than positive reinforcement.

3. A client with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia is admitted with chest pain. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). This action is crucial in assessing the heart's electrical activity and helps in the evaluation of chest pain. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after obtaining the ECG to confirm the diagnosis. Checking vital signs (Choice C) is important but does not provide direct information about the heart's electrical status. Placing the client on continuous telemetry (Choice D) may be appropriate later but does not provide immediate information on the heart's electrical activity as an ECG does.

4. A client with acute pancreatitis is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO). What should the nurse prioritize in this client's care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO), the nurse should prioritize monitoring the client's intake and output. This is crucial for assessing the client's fluid balance and ensuring that they are not becoming dehydrated or developing complications related to fluid status. Option A is incorrect because oral pain medication should not be administered to a client who is NPO. Option C is not the priority at this time, although monitoring for infection is important in the overall care of the client. Option D is not the initial priority unless there are specific indications for decompression, which would be determined by the healthcare provider.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with heart failure who is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. While calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are important in various conditions and treatments, they are not the primary electrolyte affected by furosemide.

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