Nursing Elites

1. A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?

• A. Trendelenburg
• B. Supine
• C. Prone
• D. Fowler's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.

2. A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with worsening dyspnea. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
• B. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• C. Assess the client's lung sounds.
• D. Reposition the client to relieve dyspnea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing worsening dyspnea, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. This helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Administering a diuretic (Choice B) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation comes first. While assessing lung sounds (Choice C) is important, it is not the immediate priority when the client is in respiratory distress. Repositioning the client (Choice D) may help with comfort but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation.

3. A client with hypocalcemia is receiving calcium gluconate. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes.
• B. Wheezing and stridor.
• C. Decreased bowel sounds.
• D. Positive Chvostek's sign.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Wheezing and stridor may indicate a severe allergic reaction to calcium gluconate, such as anaphylaxis, which requires immediate intervention. While hypocalcemia can present with decreased deep tendon reflexes and positive Chvostek's sign, these findings do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Decreased bowel sounds are not directly related to a severe reaction to calcium gluconate and do not require immediate intervention.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin level.
• C. Serum creatinine level.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hemoglobin levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of the therapy and ensure the client is not developing anemia. Increased hemoglobin levels indicate successful treatment, whereas very high levels may suggest erythropoietin is overcorrecting the anemia. Monitoring the white blood cell count is not directly related to erythropoietin therapy for anemia. Serum creatinine level is used to assess kidney function rather than the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Platelet count is not typically affected by erythropoietin therapy and is not a key indicator of its effectiveness.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a traumatic brain injury who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which assessment finding indicates that the client may be experiencing increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Client becomes increasingly lethargic
• B. Client's respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute
• C. Client responds to verbal stimuli
• D. Client's pupils are equal and reactive

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased lethargy is a sign of worsening intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening in clients with brain injuries. As ICP rises, it can lead to decreased level of consciousness, such as lethargy or even coma. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of increased ICP. A normal respiratory rate, response to verbal stimuli, and equal reactive pupils do not specifically point towards increased intracranial pressure.

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