HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Avoid direct sunlight while taking the medication.
- C. Take the medication with meals to prevent nausea.
- D. Discontinue the medication if you experience dizziness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication with a full glass of water.' It is crucial for the nurse to teach the client to take ciprofloxacin with a full glass of water to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin does not require avoiding direct sunlight. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with meals is not necessary to prevent nausea. Choice D is incorrect as dizziness is not a common reason to discontinue ciprofloxacin.
2. The nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who develops urticaria half an hour after the transfusion has begun. What is the first action the nurse should take?
- A. Stop the infusion
- B. Slow the rate of infusion
- C. Take vital signs and observe for further deterioration
- D. Administer Benadryl and continue the infusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client develops urticaria during a blood transfusion is to immediately stop the infusion. Urticaria is a sign of a transfusion reaction, and stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent the reaction from worsening. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate in this situation as the reaction has already started. While taking vital signs and observing for further deterioration (Choice C) is important, the priority is to stop the transfusion. Administering Benadryl and continuing the infusion (Choice D) is not recommended until the client's condition has stabilized and healthcare provider orders have been obtained.
3. An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?
- A. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
- B. Missed a dose of insulin
- C. Did not follow dietary restrictions
- D. Overexerted during exercise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infections, like a cold and ear infection, increase the body's metabolic needs and insulin resistance, making diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more likely. While missing insulin doses or not following dietary restrictions can trigger DKA, an illness is the most common precipitating factor in pediatric Type 1 diabetes. Option B is less likely as missing insulin can lead to hyperglycemia but might not be the immediate cause of ketoacidosis. Option C can contribute to DKA over time, but the acute trigger is usually an illness. Option D, overexertion during exercise, is less likely to cause DKA compared to an infection.
4. A client reports dizziness when standing up quickly. What advice should the nurse give?
- A. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
- B. Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.
- C. Report the symptom to the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Limit physical activity to avoid triggering dizziness.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct advice for a client experiencing dizziness when standing up quickly is to change positions slowly to prevent dizziness. This symptom is suggestive of postural hypotension, where a sudden change in position can lead to a drop in blood pressure, causing dizziness. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids (Choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not directly related to the prevention of dizziness in this case. Reporting the symptom to the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is important if the dizziness is persistent or severe, but the immediate action to prevent it is to change positions slowly. Limiting physical activity (Choice D) may not necessarily address the underlying cause of dizziness in this context.
5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?
- A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
- B. Assess characteristics of the client's pain.
- C. Monitor stools for blood and review PTT results.
- D. Continue the heparin and prepare to administer Vitamin K.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.
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