a client is experiencing shortness of breath and wheezing what is the nurses first action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client is experiencing shortness of breath and wheezing. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention to open the airways and relieve wheezing and shortness of breath. Bronchodilators work quickly to dilate the airways, making it easier for the client to breathe. Checking oxygen saturation is important but can be done after initiating bronchodilator therapy. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing and elevating the head of the bed can help improve breathing patterns but should follow the administration of the bronchodilator.

2. The nurse prepares to teach clients about blood glucose monitoring. When should clients always check glucose, regardless of age or type of diabetes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: During acute illness. Checking blood glucose during acute illness is crucial as stress can elevate glucose levels. This monitoring is essential regardless of the client's age or the type of diabetes they have. Checking before going to bed (choice A) may be important for some individuals, but it's not as universally necessary as during acute illness. Checking after meals (choice B) and prior to exercising (choice D) are important times for monitoring blood glucose, but they are not as universally applicable as during acute illness.

3. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication with meals. Which rationale should the nurse provide for taking the medication with food?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It reduces gastrointestinal upset.' Levodopa/carbidopa can cause nausea and other gastrointestinal side effects. Taking the medication with food can help reduce these side effects and improve the client's comfort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication with food does not primarily enhance effectiveness, improve absorption, or prevent orthostatic hypotension. The main reason for advising to take the medication with meals is to minimize gastrointestinal upset.

4. What safety measure should the nurse take for a client with a seizure disorder who has an IV line?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ensure the client is positioned on the opposite side of the IV line. Placing the IV line on the opposite side of any seizure activity is essential to prevent injury. It helps to ensure that the IV line is not dislodged during a seizure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. While padding and protecting the IV site is important, the priority is to position the client on the side opposite to the IV line to prevent dislodgement and injury during a seizure.

5. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.

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