a client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg bid the pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets how many tablets should the client receive e
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam

1. A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg ÷ 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

3. After receiving written and verbal instructions from a clinic nurse about a newly prescribed medication, a client asks the nurse what to do if questions arise about the medication after getting home. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure safe medication use, the nurse should encourage the client to call the clinic nurse or health care provider if any questions arise. Direct communication with healthcare professionals involved in the client's care is crucial to address any concerns promptly and accurately, ensuring the client's safety and understanding of the prescribed medication.

4. The UAP is positioning a newly admitted client with a seizure disorder in a supine position. The UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To prevent the risk of suffocation, soft blankets are preferred over pillows for padding side rails in clients with seizure disorders. Pillows can pose a suffocation hazard, especially during a seizure episode when the client's movements may be uncontrolled. Instructing the UAP to use soft blankets instead of pillows is crucial for ensuring the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect because pillows can be hazardous during a seizure. Choice C is incorrect as side-lying position may not be appropriate for a client with a seizure disorder. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the safety concern related to using pillows.

5. Which nonverbal action should be implemented to demonstrate active listening?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To demonstrate active listening effectively, it is essential to display open and engaging body language. Sitting facing the individual helps convey attentiveness and a willingness to listen. Maintaining eye contact further enhances the connection and shows respect and interest in the conversation. Crossing arms and legs can create a barrier and signal defensiveness or disinterest. Avoiding eye contact may suggest a lack of engagement or attentiveness. Leaning back in the chair can indicate relaxation but might be perceived as disengagement. Therefore, the most appropriate nonverbal action to demonstrate active listening is to sit facing the individual and maintain eye contact.

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