Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]

• A. 4 tablets
• B. 3 tablets
• C. 2 tablets
• D. 1 tablet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg ÷ 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.

2. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client’s safety?

• A. Encourage the client to use oxygen continuously
• B. Monitor the client’s respiratory rate and effort
• C. Set the oxygen flow rate at 6 liters per minute
• D. Teach the client to avoid wearing wool blankets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring the client’s respiratory rate and effort is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and prevent complications such as respiratory depression. This intervention helps the nurse promptly detect any deterioration in the client's respiratory status and take necessary actions to ensure the client's safety. Encouraging continuous oxygen use (Choice A) may lead to oxygen toxicity. Setting the oxygen flow rate at a specific level (Choice C) without individual assessment can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Teaching the client to avoid wearing wool blankets (Choice D) is unrelated to the safe use of oxygen therapy.

3. During the digital removal of a fecal impaction, the nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?

• A. Temperature increases from 98.8° to 99.0° F.
• B. Pulse rate decreases from 78 to 52 beats/min.
• C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 24 breaths/min.
• D. Blood pressure increases from 110/84 to 118/88 mmHg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During digital removal of a fecal impaction, a vagal response can occur due to stimulation of the anal sphincter. If the client experiences bradycardia (pulse rate decreases), the nurse should stop the procedure immediately and take corrective action to prevent any complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate a vagal response, which is the expected adverse reaction during this procedure.

4. The UAP is positioning a newly admitted client with a seizure disorder in a supine position. The UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows
• B. Ensure that the UAP has placed pillows effectively to protect the client
• C. Ask the UAP to use some pillows to prop the client in a side-lying position
• D. Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the UAP completes another task

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To prevent the risk of suffocation, soft blankets are preferred over pillows for padding side rails in clients with seizure disorders. Pillows can pose a suffocation hazard, especially during a seizure episode when the client's movements may be uncontrolled. Instructing the UAP to use soft blankets instead of pillows is crucial for ensuring the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect because pillows can be hazardous during a seizure. Choice C is incorrect as side-lying position may not be appropriate for a client with a seizure disorder. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the safety concern related to using pillows.

5. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?

• A. Perform cough and deep breathing exercises hourly.
• B. Turn from side to side in bed at least every 2 hours.
• C. Dorsiflex and plantarflex the feet 10 times each hour.
• D. Drink approximately 4 ounces of water every hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client with limited mobility to prevent venous thrombosis is to perform dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the feet 10 times each hour. These exercises help promote venous return, reducing the risk of thrombosis by preventing blood stasis in the lower extremities. While other measures like turning in bed and staying hydrated are beneficial, promoting venous return through foot exercises is the priority in preventing venous thrombosis in clients with limited mobility. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion directly target the calf muscle pump, aiding in the circulation of blood back to the heart and preventing clot formation. The other options, such as cough and deep breathing exercises, turning in bed, and hydration, are important for overall health but do not directly address venous stasis and thrombosis prevention in the same way as foot exercises.

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