HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86%. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
- D. Suction the client's airway.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is the nurse's first action when a client with COPD presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86%. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygen saturation in patients with COPD and respiratory distress. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate intervention to improve oxygenation takes priority. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also assist with breathing but is not the initial action in this scenario. Suctioning the airway is not indicated unless there are secretions obstructing the airway, which is not mentioned in the scenario.
2. The nurse is conducting diet teaching for a client diagnosed with hypertension. Which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?
- A. Pickled olives
- B. Canned soup
- C. Fresh or frozen vegetables without sauce
- D. Fruits without sauce
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fresh or frozen vegetables without sauce. These foods are low in sodium, which is crucial for managing hypertension. Pickled olives (choice A) and canned soup (choice B) are high in sodium, which can exacerbate hypertension. While fruits without sauce (choice D) are generally healthy, emphasizing vegetables is more beneficial for hypertension due to their lower sodium content.
3. The nurse is providing care for a client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with the tube?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 15 degrees during feedings
- B. Aspirate gastric contents before administering medications
- C. Clamp the tube between feedings
- D. Flush the tube with water before and after feedings
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Flushing the PEG tube with water before and after feedings helps prevent clogging and maintains tube patency. Proper flushing is essential for avoiding complications related to tube blockages. Elevating the head of the bed is important for preventing aspiration during and after feedings, not specifically related to PEG tube complications. Aspirating gastric contents before administering medications is not routinely recommended for PEG tube care. Clamping the tube between feedings can lead to tube occlusion and is not a standard practice in PEG tube care.
4. A client is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid for asthma management. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client regarding the use of this medication?
- A. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler
- B. Hold your breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication
- C. Use the inhaler during an acute asthma attack
- D. Take the medication only when symptoms occur
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using an inhaled corticosteroid for asthma management is to rinse the mouth after using the inhaler. This helps prevent oral thrush, a common side effect of corticosteroid inhalers. Holding the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication (Choice B) is not necessary for corticosteroid inhalers. Using the inhaler during an acute asthma attack (Choice C) is not the purpose of corticosteroids, which are used for long-term asthma management. Taking the medication only when symptoms occur (Choice D) is not correct as corticosteroids are typically used regularly to control asthma symptoms.
5. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?
- A. Elevated HDL cholesterol
- B. Low LDL cholesterol
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Low triglyceride levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.
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