Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86%. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
• D. Suction the client's airway.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is the nurse's first action when a client with COPD presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86%. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygen saturation in patients with COPD and respiratory distress. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate intervention to improve oxygenation takes priority. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also assist with breathing but is not the initial action in this scenario. Suctioning the airway is not indicated unless there are secretions obstructing the airway, which is not mentioned in the scenario.

2. Following a lumbar puncture, a client complains of worsening headache when sitting up. What complication is the client likely experiencing?

• A. A migraine headache
• B. An infection from the puncture site
• C. Low blood sugar
• D. Spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is likely experiencing spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache), a common complication of a lumbar puncture. This leakage results in a reduction of cerebrospinal fluid volume around the brain and spinal cord, leading to a headache that worsens when in an upright position due to reduced buoyancy. A migraine headache (Choice A) is not typically associated with a lumbar puncture. Infection from the puncture site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of inflammation, such as redness, swelling, and warmth, rather than worsening headache. Low blood sugar (Choice C) is not a common complication of lumbar puncture and would not typically manifest as a worsening headache when sitting up.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is admitted with complaints of fatigue and swelling in the lower extremities. What laboratory finding is most important for the nurse to report?

• A. Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL.
• B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL.
• C. Potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 25 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL suggests anemia, which commonly occurs in clients with chronic kidney disease and requires prompt intervention. Reporting this finding is crucial to address the anemic condition. Choices A, C, and D are important in the context of chronic kidney disease but do not directly relate to the symptoms of fatigue and swelling in the lower extremities described in the scenario.

4. The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a 'flea bite' type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?

• A. We need to monitor the rash for signs of worsening or fever
• B. Your baby may have an allergic reaction to laundry detergent
• C. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days
• D. This is likely a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The rash described is typical of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and benign newborn rash that resolves on its own within a few days. No treatment is necessary, and the nurse should reassure the mother. Choice A is incorrect as the rash is self-limiting and does not require monitoring for worsening signs or fever. Choice B is incorrect as erythema toxicum neonatorum is not caused by an allergic reaction to laundry detergent. Choice D is incorrect as this rash is not indicative of a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection to a thin, elderly client. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?

• A. Dorsal aspect of the upper arm.
• B. Upper outer thigh.
• C. Lower abdomen.
• D. Lateral aspect of the upper arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the upper outer thigh. In thin, elderly clients, the upper outer thigh is a recommended site for subcutaneous injections due to the presence of adequate subcutaneous tissue and muscle mass. The dorsal aspect of the upper arm may not provide enough subcutaneous tissue for proper absorption of the medication. The lower abdomen is not ideal for thin individuals as it may lead to injection into muscle rather than subcutaneous tissue. The lateral aspect of the upper arm is also not a commonly recommended site for subcutaneous injections.

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