HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Check the client’s digoxin (Lanoxin) level.
- B. Administer an anti-nausea medication.
- C. Ask if the client can eat crackers.
- D. Refer the client to a gastrointestinal specialist.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing symptoms like nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia, it is crucial for the nurse to suspect digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. These symptoms are indicative of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the best action for the nurse to take is to check the client's digoxin level. Administering anti-nausea medication, asking about eating crackers, and referring to a gastrointestinal specialist may help with symptom management but do not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is digoxin toxicity in this case.
2. What is the primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation?
- A. To reduce blood pressure.
- B. To prevent clot formation.
- C. To prevent arrhythmias.
- D. To reduce inflammation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation is to prevent clot formation. Patients with atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of forming blood clots in the heart, which can lead to stroke if they travel to the brain. Anticoagulants help to reduce this risk by inhibiting the clotting process. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect because anticoagulants do not primarily aim to reduce blood pressure, prevent arrhythmias, or reduce inflammation in patients with atrial fibrillation.
3. A client recently diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statements made by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. I need to ask for an antibiotic when scheduling a dental appointment.
- B. I’ll need to check my blood sugar often to prevent hypoglycemia.
- C. The dose of my pain medication may have to be adjusted.
- D. The need to watch for bleeding with anticoagulants.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statements indicating a proper understanding of the teaching include the need for antibiotics for dental work, the potential need to adjust pain medication doses, and the importance of monitoring blood sugar levels. The statement about watching for bleeding with anticoagulants is not directly related to CKD and discharge instructions for this condition. Therefore, option A is correct, as it addresses relevant concerns for a client with CKD, while the other options are either unrelated or not specifically mentioned in the scenario.
4. The nurse is taking the vital signs of a client after hemodialysis. Blood pressure is 110/58 mm Hg, pulse 66 beats/min, and temperature is 99.8°F (37.6°C). What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Administer fluids to increase blood pressure.
- B. Check the white blood cell count.
- C. Monitor the client’s temperature.
- D. Connect the client to an electrocardiographic (ECG) monitor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After hemodialysis, it is crucial to monitor the client's temperature because the dialysate is warmed to increase diffusion and prevent hypothermia. The client's temperature might reflect the temperature of the dialysate. There is no need to administer fluids to increase blood pressure as the vital signs are within normal limits. Checking the white blood cell count or connecting the client to an ECG monitor is not necessary based on the information provided.
5. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?
- A. I'm sorry sir, you have a prescription for nothing by mouth from midnight tonight.
- B. I will let you have one cracker, but that is all you can have for the rest of tonight.
- C. What did the healthcare provider tell you about the test you are having tomorrow?
- D. The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.
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