a client with chronic kidney disease ckd is experiencing nausea vomiting visual changes and anorexia which action by the nurse is best
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia. Which action by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing symptoms like nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia, it is crucial for the nurse to suspect digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. These symptoms are indicative of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the best action for the nurse to take is to check the client's digoxin level. Administering anti-nausea medication, asking about eating crackers, and referring to a gastrointestinal specialist may help with symptom management but do not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is digoxin toxicity in this case.

2. A client who is receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, 'Why is so much of my hair falling out each day?' Which response by the nurse best explains the reason for alopecia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.' Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include not only cancer cells but also healthy cells like those in hair follicles. This leads to alopecia (hair loss) as a common side effect. Choice B is incorrect as alopecia is primarily associated with chemotherapy and not long-term steroid therapy. Choice C is incorrect because while hair may grow back after chemotherapy, it may not always be to the same extent or thickness. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy-induced hair loss is often temporary and reversible, not permanent alterations in hair follicles.

3. A client is being taught about self-catheterization in the home setting. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s teaching? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In teaching a client about self-catheterization, it is essential to emphasize proper hand hygiene before and after the procedure to prevent infections. Using lubricant on the catheter helps with insertion and reduces discomfort. Therefore, statements A and B are correct and should be included in the client's teaching. Option D is incorrect because self-catheterization frequency should be individualized based on the client's needs, and a specific time frame like every 12 hours may not be suitable for everyone. Choosing a smaller lumen catheter is preferred over a larger one. Self-catheterization should not be limited to a specific time frame but should be based on the individual's needs and voiding patterns. Therefore, option C is the correct choice as it includes the two essential statements for teaching self-catheterization in the home setting.

4. What is an ideal goal of treatment set by the nurse in the care plan for a client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ideal goal of treatment for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema is to maintain a balanced intake and output. This helps in achieving optimal fluid balance, enabling the heart to eject blood effectively without increasing pressure in the left ventricle and pulmonary vessels. While maintaining oxygen saturation above 92% is important for adequate tissue oxygenation, the primary focus in this scenario is fluid balance. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds is important to assess for pulmonary status, but it is not the primary goal to prevent pulmonary edema specifically. Similarly, absence of shortness of breath at rest is a relevant goal, but the emphasis in CKD management is on fluid balance to prevent pulmonary complications.

5. A serum phenytoin determination is prescribed for a client with a seizure disorder who is taking phenytoin (Dilantin). Which result indicates that the prescribed dose of phenytoin is therapeutic?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 16 mcg/mL (Choice C). The therapeutic serum phenytoin range is typically 10 to 20 mcg/mL. A level below this range may lead to continued seizure activity, indicating subtherapeutic levels. Choices A, B, and D are below the therapeutic range and would not be considered therapeutic for a client with a seizure disorder on phenytoin therapy.

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