HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Check the client’s digoxin (Lanoxin) level.
- B. Administer an anti-nausea medication.
- C. Ask if the client can eat crackers.
- D. Refer the client to a gastrointestinal specialist.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing symptoms like nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia, it is crucial for the nurse to suspect digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. These symptoms are indicative of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the best action for the nurse to take is to check the client's digoxin level. Administering anti-nausea medication, asking about eating crackers, and referring to a gastrointestinal specialist may help with symptom management but do not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is digoxin toxicity in this case.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Clear dialysate inflow.
- C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician as it is a concerning sign of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneum. Peritonitis is a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires prompt medical intervention to prevent further complications. Clear dialysate outflow and inflow are normal findings in peritoneal dialysis and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Increased blood pressure, while important to monitor, is not directly related to peritoneal dialysis and would not be the priority over the potentially life-threatening complication of peritonitis.
3. A client has lost a significant amount of blood due to complications during surgery. What parameter does the nurse recognize as the earliest indication of new decreases in fluid volume?
- A. Pulse rate
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Pulmonary artery systolic pressure
- D. Pulmonary artery end-diastolic pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The earliest indication of new decreases in fluid volume is often recognized by an increase in pulse rate. Cardiac output is influenced by circulating blood volume, heart pumping action, and vascular tone. As fluid volume decreases, the body compensates by increasing the pulse rate. The formula for cardiac output is pulse rate multiplied by stroke volume. An elevated pulse rate helps maintain blood pressure with minor volume depletion. Pulmonary artery systolic pressure and pulmonary artery end-diastolic pressure, obtained through a pulmonary artery catheter, provide insights into pulmonary artery and left ventricle pressures at the end of diastole. These parameters are not the earliest indicators of new decreases in fluid volume compared to pulse rate.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is at risk for nephrotoxicity due to medications. Which of the following serum creatinine results does the healthcare professional document as normal?
- A. 0.2 mg/dL
- B. 1.0 mg/dL
- C. 2.8 mg/dL
- D. 3.9 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The normal serum creatinine level typically ranges from 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL. A result of 1.0 mg/dL falls within this normal range. A serum creatinine level of 0.2 mg/dL is abnormally low and may indicate decreased muscle mass or malnutrition. On the other hand, results of 2.8 mg/dL and 3.9 mg/dL are elevated, signifying impaired kidney function and potential nephrotoxicity from medications.
5. During spring break, a young adult presents to the urgent care clinic and reports a stiff neck, a fever for the past 6 hours, and a headache. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?
- A. Initiate isolation precautions
- B. Administer an antipyretic
- C. Draw blood cultures
- D. Prepare for lumbar puncture
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate isolation precautions. This is the priority action because the patient presents with symptoms that could be indicative of meningitis, an infectious disease that requires isolation to prevent its spread. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help manage the fever but does not address the need for isolation. Drawing blood cultures (Choice C) and preparing for a lumbar puncture (Choice D) are important steps in diagnosing meningitis but should come after initiating isolation precautions to prevent potential transmission of the infection to others.
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