Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia. Which action by the nurse is best?

• A. Check the client’s digoxin (Lanoxin) level.
• B. Administer an anti-nausea medication.
• C. Ask if the client can eat crackers.
• D. Refer the client to a gastrointestinal specialist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing symptoms like nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia, it is crucial for the nurse to suspect digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. These symptoms are indicative of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the best action for the nurse to take is to check the client's digoxin level. Administering anti-nausea medication, asking about eating crackers, and referring to a gastrointestinal specialist may help with symptom management but do not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is digoxin toxicity in this case.

2. A nurse has a prescription to discontinue a client’s nasogastric tube. The nurse auscultates the client’s bowel sounds, positions the client properly, and flushes the tube with 15 mL of air to clear secretions. The nurse then instructs the client to take a deep breath and:

• A. Exhale during tube removal
• B. Bear down during tube removal
• C. Hold the breath during tube removal
• D. Breathe normally during tube removal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to hold their breath during tube removal. This is because the airway may be temporarily obstructed during the removal process. By holding their breath, the client can help prevent aspiration or discomfort during the removal of the nasogastric tube. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because exhaling, bearing down, or breathing normally during tube removal may not provide the necessary protection against aspiration or discomfort that holding the breath does.

3. A patient has a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. The patient’s provider has determined that the patient will need 200 mEq of potassium to replace serum losses. How will the nurse caring for this patient expect to administer the potassium?

• A. As a single-dose 200 mEq oral tablet
• B. As an intravenous bolus over 15 to 20 minutes
• C. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour
• D. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 45 mEq/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient with severe hypokalemia with a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L requiring 200 mEq of potassium replacement, the appropriate route of administration would be intravenous. Potassium chloride should be administered slowly to prevent adverse effects; therefore, the correct option is to administer the potassium in an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Choices A and B are incorrect because potassium should not be given as a single-dose oral tablet or as an intravenous bolus over a short period of time due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is also incorrect as the rate of 45 mEq/hour exceeds the recommended maximum infusion rate for adults with a serum potassium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L, which is 10 mEq/hour.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is being treated with sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following?

• A. Hyponatremia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hyperkalemia.
• D. Hypocalcemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperkalemia. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat high potassium levels (hyperkalemia) by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, which is then eliminated through the feces. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for changes in potassium levels to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is not associated with causing hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypocalcemia.

5. A client is tested for HIV with the use of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), and the test result is positive. The nurse should tell the client that:

• A. HIV infection has been confirmed
• B. The client probably has an opportunistic infection
• C. The test will need to be confirmed with the use of a Western blot
• D. A positive test is a normal result and does not mean that the client is infected with HIV

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When an ELISA test for HIV is positive, it is essential to confirm the result with a Western blot. The Western blot is the confirmatory test for HIV. Choice A is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does not confirm HIV infection. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes a different diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does indicate potential HIV infection and requires confirmation.

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