Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia. Which action by the nurse is best?

• A. Check the client’s digoxin (Lanoxin) level.
• B. Administer an anti-nausea medication.
• C. Ask if the client can eat crackers.
• D. Refer the client to a gastrointestinal specialist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing symptoms like nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia, it is crucial for the nurse to suspect digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. These symptoms are indicative of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the best action for the nurse to take is to check the client's digoxin level. Administering anti-nausea medication, asking about eating crackers, and referring to a gastrointestinal specialist may help with symptom management but do not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is digoxin toxicity in this case.

2. A client is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. The client’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level is 80 seconds. The client’s baseline before the initiation of therapy was 30 seconds. Which action does the nurse anticipate is needed?

• A. Shutting off the heparin infusion
• B. Increasing the rate of the heparin infusion
• C. Decreasing the rate of the heparin infusion
• D. Leaving the rate of the heparin infusion as is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse needs to decrease the rate of the heparin infusion. The therapeutic dose of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis is designed to keep the aPTT between 1.5 and 2.5 times normal. With the client's aPTT level elevated to 80 seconds from a baseline of 30 seconds, it indicates that the current rate of heparin infusion is too high. Lowering the rate of infusion is necessary to bring the aPTT within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because shutting off the infusion, increasing the rate, or leaving it as is would not address the elevated aPTT level and may lead to complications.

3. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?

• A. A 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago.
• B. A 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and a cholesterol level of 158 (8.8 mmol/L).
• C. A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 (3.3 mmol/L) who takes atorvastatin.
• D. A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188 (10.4 mmol/L).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The 65-year-old female who is obese with a high LDL level of 188 (10.4 mmol/L) is at the greatest risk for coronary artery disease. Obesity and high LDL cholesterol levels are significant risk factors for developing coronary artery disease. While factors like mitral valve prolapse (choice A) and a family history of CAD (choice B) can contribute to the risk, they are not as significant as obesity and high LDL levels. Choice C, a 56-year-old male with high HDL and taking atorvastatin, is actually at lower risk due to the high HDL levels and being on statin therapy, which helps reduce cholesterol levels and lower the risk of coronary artery disease.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication of the treatment?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• C. Increased heart rate.
• D. Fatigue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg during hemodialysis may indicate fluid overload or an ineffective dialysis session, which can lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal and expected finding during hemodialysis, indicating proper filtration of waste products. Increased heart rate can be a normal compensatory response to hemodialysis due to fluid shifts and should be monitored but does not necessarily indicate a complication. Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with chronic renal failure undergoing hemodialysis and is not specific to complications of the treatment.

5. After a lumbar puncture, into which position does the nurse assist the client?

• A. Flat
• B. Semi-Fowler
• C. Side-lying with the head of the bed elevated
• D. Sitting up in a recliner with the feet elevated

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, the client should be positioned flat. This position helps prevent post-procedure spinal headaches and cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Keeping the client flat for up to 12 hours is crucial in minimizing these risks. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because elevating the head of the bed or sitting up can increase the risk of complications by altering the pressure in the spinal canal, potentially leading to headaches and fluid leakage.

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