HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with a tracheostomy has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Perform deep suctioning every 2 to 4 hours.
- B. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids.
- C. Increase humidity in the client's room.
- D. Administer a mucolytic agent.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room can help liquefy thick secretions and facilitate easier airway clearance in a client with a tracheostomy. This intervention should be implemented first as it is non-invasive and can often effectively address the issue of thick secretions. Performing deep suctioning (Choice A) should not be the first intervention as it is more invasive and should be done based on assessment findings. Encouraging the client to drink plenty of fluids (Choice B) is beneficial but may not provide immediate relief for thick secretions. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice D) requires a healthcare provider's prescription and should be based on assessment data and the client's condition.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. An ECG provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity, helping to identify changes indicative of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Chest X-ray (Choice B) is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing chest pain related to myocardial infarction. Arterial blood gases (Choice C) are used to assess oxygenation and acid-base balance but are not the primary diagnostic test for myocardial infarction. An echocardiogram (Choice D) may provide valuable information about cardiac structure and function, but it is not the first-line diagnostic test for acute chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction.
3. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure receiving furosemide, crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. This finding suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing oxygen exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing pulmonary congestion promptly are crucial to prevent worsening heart failure and respiratory compromise. The other options, while important to assess in a client with heart failure, do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like crackles in the lungs do. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute may be within the normal range for some individuals, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is relatively stable, and peripheral edema is a common manifestation of heart failure that should be monitored but does not require immediate intervention compared to pulmonary congestion.
4. The nurse enters a client's room and observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) making an occupied bed. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Place the side rails in an up position.
- B. Assist the UAP in turning the client.
- C. Provide instructions on proper bed-making techniques.
- D. Ask the client if they are comfortable.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the side rails in an up position first. This action is essential to prevent the client from falling while the bed is being made. Assisting the UAP in turning the client (Choice B) is not the immediate priority. Providing instructions on bed-making techniques (Choice C) can wait until the safety of the client is ensured. Asking the client if they are comfortable (Choice D) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety by raising the side rails.
5. A woman who takes pyridostigmine for myasthenia gravis (MG) arrives at the emergency department complaining of extreme muscle weakness. Her adult daughter tells the nurse that since yesterday her mother has been unable to smile. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Uncontrollable drooling.
- B. Inability to raise voice.
- C. Tingling of extremities.
- D. Eyelid drooping.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Uncontrollable drooling can be a sign of a myasthenic crisis, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Drooling indicates difficulty in swallowing, which can lead to aspiration and respiratory compromise. Inability to raise voice (choice B) and tingling of extremities (choice C) are not typically associated with myasthenic crisis. Although eyelid drooping (choice D) is a common symptom of myasthenia gravis, it is not as urgent as uncontrollable drooling in indicating a potential crisis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access