Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a male client with multiple sclerosis how to empty his bladder using the Crede Method. When performing a return demonstration, the client applies pressure to the umbilical areas of his abdomen. What instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Stroke the inner thigh below the perineum to initiate urinary flow
• B. Contract, hold, and then relax the pubococcygeal muscle
• C. Pour warm water over the external sphincter at the distal glans
• D. Apply downward manual pressure at the suprapubic regions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is applying pressure in the wrong region (umbilical area) and should be instructed to apply pressure at the suprapubic area. Applying downward manual pressure at the suprapubic region helps in emptying the bladder effectively by assisting in pushing the urine out through the urethra. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific issue of applying pressure to help empty the bladder using the Crede Method.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dl

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, INR is a more precise indicator of therapeutic levels. Serum sodium level and hemoglobin level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

3. In a client with cirrhosis admitted with jaundice and ascites, which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dl
• B. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dl
• C. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with cirrhosis as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated ammonia levels are associated with impaired liver function and can lead to mental status changes. Serum bilirubin (Choice A) is elevated in cirrhosis but not as concerning for acute intervention as high ammonia levels. Serum albumin (Choice B) and serum sodium (Choice D) levels are important in cirrhotic patients but are not as directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy as ammonia levels.

4. Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products while in the operating room. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, he is being mechanically ventilated, and his oxygen saturation is 87%. His laboratory values include hemoglobin 7.0 g/dL, platelets 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells 1,500/mm³. Based on these assessment findings, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Transfuse packed red blood cells.
• B. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
• C. Infuse 1000 ml of normal saline.
• D. Titrate oxygen to keep O2 saturation at 90%.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of severe anemia and hypovolemic shock, indicated by low hemoglobin levels and hypotension. The first priority is to address the low hemoglobin by transfusing packed red blood cells to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and perfusion to vital organs. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures is important for identifying potential infections, infusing normal saline can help with volume expansion but does not address the primary issue of severe anemia. Titrating oxygen to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90% is crucial but should follow the administration of packed red blood cells to optimize oxygen delivery.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation is the first priority in managing a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen to ensure adequate oxygenation. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels helps in determining the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy and if adjustments are needed. Elevating the head of the bed can help with breathing but is not the first priority. Administering oxygen therapy as prescribed is important, but assessing the current oxygen saturation comes before administering more oxygen. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample may provide valuable information, but it is not the initial intervention needed in this situation.

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