Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a male client with multiple sclerosis how to empty his bladder using the Crede Method. When performing a return demonstration, the client applies pressure to the umbilical areas of his abdomen. What instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Stroke the inner thigh below the perineum to initiate urinary flow
• B. Contract, hold, and then relax the pubococcygeal muscle
• C. Pour warm water over the external sphincter at the distal glans
• D. Apply downward manual pressure at the suprapubic regions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is applying pressure in the wrong region (umbilical area) and should be instructed to apply pressure at the suprapubic area. Applying downward manual pressure at the suprapubic region helps in emptying the bladder effectively by assisting in pushing the urine out through the urethra. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific issue of applying pressure to help empty the bladder using the Crede Method.

2. A client with a tracheostomy has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Perform deep suctioning every 2 to 4 hours.
• B. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids.
• C. Increase humidity in the client's room.
• D. Administer a mucolytic agent.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room can help liquefy thick secretions and facilitate easier airway clearance in a client with a tracheostomy. This intervention should be implemented first as it is non-invasive and can often effectively address the issue of thick secretions. Performing deep suctioning (Choice A) should not be the first intervention as it is more invasive and should be done based on assessment findings. Encouraging the client to drink plenty of fluids (Choice B) is beneficial but may not provide immediate relief for thick secretions. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice D) requires a healthcare provider's prescription and should be based on assessment data and the client's condition.

3. The nurse is preparing a community education program on osteoporosis. Which instruction is helpful in preventing bone loss and promoting bone formation?

• A. Recommend weight-bearing physical activity.
• B. Encourage a diet high in dairy products.
• C. Suggest vitamin D supplementation.
• D. Advise avoiding caffeine and alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recommend weight-bearing physical activity. Weight-bearing exercises are effective in maintaining bone density and preventing osteoporosis by promoting bone formation. Encouraging a diet high in dairy products (choice B) can provide calcium, but it's not as directly related to bone formation as physical activity. While vitamin D supplementation (choice C) is important for calcium absorption and bone health, it is not directly involved in promoting bone formation. Advising to avoid caffeine and alcohol (choice D) can be beneficial for bone health, but it is not as directly related to promoting bone formation as weight-bearing physical activity.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Serum creatinine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium closely is essential. Erythropoietin therapy can lead to increased red blood cell production, which may cause potassium levels to rise, potentially resulting in hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly impacted by erythropoietin therapy in the context of CKD.

5. In caring for a client with a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate through the right cephalic vein, the nurse assesses that the client is lethargic with a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 118 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. What assessment should the nurse perform next?

• A. Note the appearance and patency of the client's peripheral IV site.
• B. Palpate the volume of the client's right radial pulse.
• C. Auscultate the client's breath sounds bilaterally.
• D. Observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of potential opioid overdose, such as lethargy, hypotension, tachycardia, and bradypnea. The next assessment the nurse should perform is to observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe. This evaluation is crucial in determining if the client is receiving an excessive amount of morphine, leading to the observed symptoms. Checking the PCA pump syringe will provide essential information to address the client's condition promptly and prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation as they do not directly address the potential cause of the client's symptoms related to morphine administration.

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