HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. The nurse is teaching a male client with multiple sclerosis how to empty his bladder using the Crede Method. When performing a return demonstration, the client applies pressure to the umbilical areas of his abdomen. What instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Stroke the inner thigh below the perineum to initiate urinary flow
- B. Contract, hold, and then relax the pubococcygeal muscle
- C. Pour warm water over the external sphincter at the distal glans
- D. Apply downward manual pressure at the suprapubic regions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is applying pressure in the wrong region (umbilical area) and should be instructed to apply pressure at the suprapubic area. Applying downward manual pressure at the suprapubic region helps in emptying the bladder effectively by assisting in pushing the urine out through the urethra. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific issue of applying pressure to help empty the bladder using the Crede Method.
2. A client's subjective data includes dysuria, urgency, and urinary frequency. What action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Collect a clean-catch specimen
- B. Administer prescribed antibiotics
- C. Perform a bladder scan
- D. Increase the client's fluid intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement next is to collect a clean-catch specimen. This is essential to diagnose the cause of the client's symptoms accurately before initiating any treatment. Administering antibiotics (Choice B) without confirming the diagnosis through a specimen collection can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Performing a bladder scan (Choice C) may not provide the necessary information to identify the specific cause of the symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is a general recommendation and may not address the underlying issue causing the symptoms.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Apical pulse of 58 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Presence of a new murmur
- D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An apical pulse of 58 beats per minute is concerning when administering digoxin because digoxin can further lower the heart rate, leading to bradycardia or heart block. Immediate intervention is required to prevent potential complications. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal range and does not require immediate intervention in this context. The presence of a new murmur may indicate valvular issues but does not directly relate to the administration of digoxin. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute is also within normal limits and is not a priority concern when administering digoxin.
4. In preparing assignments for the shift, which client is best for the charge nurse to assign to a practical nurse (PN)?
- A. An older client who fell yesterday and is now complaining of diplopia.
- B. An adult newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and high cholesterol.
- C. A client with pancreatic cancer who is experiencing intractable pain.
- D. An older client post-stroke who is aphasic with right-sided hemiplegia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best client for the charge nurse to assign to a practical nurse (PN) is an older client post-stroke who is aphasic with right-sided hemiplegia. This client is stable and suitable for care by a PN under supervision. Choices A, B, and C present clients with more complex and acute conditions that would require a higher level of nursing expertise and intervention.
5. A woman who takes pyridostigmine for myasthenia gravis (MG) arrives at the emergency department complaining of extreme muscle weakness. Her adult daughter tells the nurse that since yesterday her mother has been unable to smile. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Uncontrollable drooling.
- B. Inability to raise voice.
- C. Tingling of extremities.
- D. Eyelid drooping.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Uncontrollable drooling can be a sign of a myasthenic crisis, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Drooling indicates difficulty in swallowing, which can lead to aspiration and respiratory compromise. Inability to raise voice (choice B) and tingling of extremities (choice C) are not typically associated with myasthenic crisis. Although eyelid drooping (choice D) is a common symptom of myasthenia gravis, it is not as urgent as uncontrollable drooling in indicating a potential crisis.
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