Nursing Elites

1. While a child is hospitalized with acute glomerulonephritis, the parents ask why blood pressure readings are taken so often. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?

• A. Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly
• B. Frequent monitoring helps ensure the medication is effective
• C. It is standard protocol for all hospitalized children
• D. We need to monitor for any potential kidney damage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly.' Acute glomerulonephritis can lead to significant hypertension, making it crucial to monitor blood pressure frequently to promptly identify any elevation. Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring can help assess medication effectiveness, the primary reason for frequent blood pressure checks in this case is to detect elevated blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as not all hospitalized children require such frequent blood pressure monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as the primary reason for monitoring blood pressure is to detect hypertension, rather than solely focusing on potential kidney damage.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• B. Crepitus around the insertion site
• C. Subcutaneous emphysema
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the assessment finding that requires immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Subcutaneous emphysema can indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, which can compromise respiratory function and lead to serious complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% may be concerning but does not require immediate intervention as it is still within an acceptable range. Crepitus around the insertion site is common after chest tube placement and may not always indicate a problem. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits and does not require immediate intervention in this context.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.0
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Apical pulse of 58 beats per minute
• C. Presence of a new murmur
• D. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The presence of a new murmur in a client with heart failure receiving digoxin and furosemide is concerning as it may indicate valvular problems or other complications that require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and an apical pulse of 58 beats per minute are within normal limits for a client with heart failure on these medications. A blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, while slightly low, may be expected due to the diuretic effect of furosemide and may not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic.

5. A client's subjective data includes dysuria, urgency, and urinary frequency. What action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Collect a clean-catch specimen
• B. Administer prescribed antibiotics
• C. Perform a bladder scan
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement next is to collect a clean-catch specimen. This is essential to diagnose the cause of the client's symptoms accurately before initiating any treatment. Administering antibiotics (Choice B) without confirming the diagnosis through a specimen collection can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Performing a bladder scan (Choice C) may not provide the necessary information to identify the specific cause of the symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is a general recommendation and may not address the underlying issue causing the symptoms.

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