Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed aspirin therapy. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take aspirin with food.
• B. Take aspirin at the same time every day.
• C. Avoid taking aspirin with alcohol.
• D. Discontinue aspirin if you experience ringing in your ears.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan is to avoid taking aspirin with alcohol. Combining aspirin with alcohol can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and other complications. Taking aspirin with food helps reduce stomach upset, but it is not the most crucial instruction in this scenario. While taking aspirin at the same time every day can help with consistency, it is not as critical as avoiding alcohol. Discontinuing aspirin if experiencing ringing in the ears is important to address potential side effects, but it is not directly related to preventing complications when combining with alcohol.

2. Which intervention by the community health nurse is an example of a secondary level of prevention?

• A. providing a needle exchange program at a community mental health clinic
• B. developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus
• C. administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home
• D. initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, administering influenza vaccines helps prevent the spread of the flu among vulnerable individuals. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of secondary prevention. Providing a needle exchange program (Choice A) is a harm reduction strategy (tertiary prevention). Developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus (Choice B) focuses on health promotion and primary prevention. Initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client (Choice D) is a measure to prevent further transmission of the disease but is more aligned with tertiary prevention.

3. A school nurse is planning a program to address bullying among students. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. Implementing a zero-tolerance policy for bullying
• B. Conducting peer mediation sessions
• C. Providing workshops on conflict resolution
• D. Promoting bystander intervention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Promoting bystander intervention is the most effective strategy as it empowers students to take action and prevent bullying incidents. By encouraging bystanders to intervene when they witness bullying, the behavior is less likely to continue. Zero-tolerance policies may have limited effectiveness as they often focus on punishment rather than prevention. Peer mediation and conflict resolution workshops are valuable but may not directly address the immediate need for bystander intervention in bullying situations.

4. A female adult walks into a local community health clinic and tells the nurse that she is homeless and cannot seem to find help. Which statement indicates to the nurse that a client is feeling separated from society and helpless?

• A. "I'm feeling really isolated from everyone and scared."
• B. "I feel like I cannot get enough food to live any longer."
• C. "I know that I will always be poor so what's the use of trying?"
• D. "People like me are never respected, no matter how well we do."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because the statement reflects a sense of isolation and helplessness, indicating a profound emotional and social disconnect. The client expresses feeling separated from others and scared, highlighting a deep emotional distress. Choices B, C, and D touch on different issues such as food insecurity, hopelessness about poverty, and lack of respect, but they do not specifically address the feelings of isolation and helplessness mentioned in the client's statement.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
• C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.

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