Nursing Elites

1. The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself daily and report a weight gain of more than 2 pounds in 24 hours.
• B. I will take my diuretic medication in the morning.
• C. I will call my healthcare provider if I experience increased shortness of breath.
• D. I will drink at least 3 liters of fluid each day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking at least 3 liters of fluid each day may be contraindicated for a client with CHF due to the risk of fluid overload. This can exacerbate heart failure symptoms and lead to complications. Options A, B, and C are all appropriate statements that demonstrate understanding of managing CHF and seeking appropriate medical attention when needed.

2. A public health nurse is evaluating a program designed to reduce childhood obesity. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?

• A. increased participation in physical activities
• B. higher attendance at nutrition education sessions
• C. reduced rates of childhood obesity
• D. greater knowledge of healthy eating habits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: reduced rates of childhood obesity. A reduction in childhood obesity rates is a direct indicator that the program is successful in achieving its goal. Increased participation in physical activities (choice A) and higher attendance at nutrition education sessions (choice B) are positive outcomes, but they do not directly measure the program's effectiveness in reducing obesity. Greater knowledge of healthy eating habits (choice D) is important but does not guarantee a decrease in obesity rates. Therefore, the most significant outcome to determine the success of a childhood obesity reduction program is a reduction in obesity rates.

3. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.
• B. Remove the brace while sleeping.
• C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.
• D. Remove the brace while eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/120 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Metoprolol (Lopressor).
• B. Furosemide (Lasix).
• C. Lisinopril (Zestril).
• D. Nitroprusside (Nipride).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nitroprusside (Nipride). In this scenario of severe hypertension (200/120 mm Hg), a hypertensive emergency is present, requiring rapid reduction of blood pressure. Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that acts quickly to lower blood pressure in such emergencies. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure but is not indicated for hypertensive emergencies requiring rapid reduction. B) Furosemide is a diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not rapidly lower blood pressure. C) Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used for long-term management of hypertension, not for immediate reduction in hypertensive emergencies.

5. A client with a head injury is admitted to the hospital. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
• B. Pupils are equal and reactive to light.
• C. Client is drowsy but arousable.
• D. Client does not remember the events leading to the injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a head injury, being drowsy but still arousable can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which necessitates immediate intervention. This presentation may indicate a deterioration in neurological status, requiring prompt assessment and management to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of an immediate need for intervention in this scenario. A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness; pupils being equal and reactive to light suggest intact cranial nerve function, and memory loss about the injury event is common in head injuries and does not necessarily warrant immediate intervention.

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