Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased respiratory rate.
• B. Absence of breath sounds.
• C. Expiratory wheezes.
• D. Productive cough with green sputum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of breath sounds. This finding can indicate a pneumothorax or severe asthma exacerbation, both of which require immediate intervention to ensure adequate ventilation and prevent further complications. Increased respiratory rate (choice A) is common in asthma exacerbations but may not always necessitate immediate intervention. Expiratory wheezes (choice C) are typical in asthma and may not always indicate a critical condition. A productive cough with green sputum (choice D) suggests a possible respiratory infection but does not warrant immediate intervention as much as the absence of breath sounds.

2. A government office worker is seen in the emergency room after opening an envelope containing a powder-like substance which is being tested for anthrax. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the client concerning inhalation anthrax?

• A. return to the emergency room if flu-like symptoms develop within 42 days
• B. notify co-workers to get the anthrax vaccine at the public health department
• C. isolation from friends and family members is recommended for 3 weeks
• D. cleanse all surfaces touched with pre-moistened antibacterial wipes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to return to the emergency room if flu-like symptoms develop within 42 days. Flu-like symptoms can be an early sign of inhalation anthrax, and prompt medical intervention is crucial. Choice B is incorrect because the focus should be on the affected individual seeking medical attention rather than vaccinating others. Choice C is incorrect as isolation from friends and family members is not a standard recommendation for inhalation anthrax. Choice D is also incorrect as cleansing surfaces is important for infection control but may not be the priority when facing potential exposure to anthrax.

3. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

4. A home health nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for several clients with heart failure. Which client finding would the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. Total cholesterol 190
• B. Glycosylated hemoglobin of 7%
• C. B-type natriuretic peptide 550 pg/ml (more than 100 is concerning)
• D. Potassium 3.7

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated B-type natriuretic peptide level indicates worsening heart failure, requiring immediate attention. This biomarker reflects the severity of heart failure and helps guide treatment decisions. Total cholesterol and glycosylated hemoglobin are important for assessing cardiovascular risk and diabetes management but are not indicative of acute heart failure exacerbation. A potassium level of 3.7 falls within the normal range and does not suggest an immediate concern in the context of heart failure.

5. The client, who is 6 weeks pregnant, is being educated by the nurse on prenatal care. Which statement indicates that the client comprehends the nurse's instructions?

• A. I will increase my intake of vitamin C.
• B. I will avoid alcohol and tobacco.
• C. I will need to take folic acid supplements.
• D. I will avoid taking any medication without consulting my healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During pregnancy, it is crucial to avoid taking any medication without consulting a healthcare provider to prevent harm to the developing fetus. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects of prenatal care but do not specifically address the potential risks associated with taking medications during pregnancy. Increasing intake of vitamin C (Choice A) is beneficial but does not address medication safety. Avoiding alcohol and tobacco (Choice B) is essential, but the question focuses on medication safety. Taking folic acid supplements (Choice C) is vital for neural tube development but does not cover the broader topic of medication safety.

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