HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with pulmonary edema. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Peripheral edema.
- B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- C. Jugular vein distention.
- D. Productive cough with pink, frothy sputum.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A productive cough with pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory compromise and worsening of the condition. Peripheral edema (Choice A) is a manifestation of heart failure but is not as urgent as addressing pulmonary edema. Oxygen saturation of 88% (Choice B) is low and requires attention, but the pink, frothy sputum signifies acute respiratory distress. Jugular vein distention (Choice C) can be seen in heart failure, but the immediate concern in this scenario is addressing the pulmonary edema to ensure adequate gas exchange and oxygenation.
2. The nurse is developing a community health program to address the high rates of hypertension in a neighborhood. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. conducting free blood pressure screenings
- B. distributing educational materials on hypertension
- C. holding workshops on stress management
- D. partnering with local gyms to offer discounted memberships
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Conducting free blood pressure screenings should be prioritized as it helps identify individuals with hypertension who may not be aware of their condition. Early detection allows for timely medical intervention and management. While distributing educational materials, holding stress management workshops, and partnering with local gyms are valuable interventions, they may not directly address the immediate need for identifying undiagnosed cases of hypertension in the community.
3. During a health assessment for a family with a history of cardiovascular disease, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?
- A. a 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol
- B. a 17-year-old daughter who is overweight and inactive
- C. a 50-year-old mother with a history of hypertension
- D. a 12-year-old son who has a normal weight and is active
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention. He has multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, including smoking and high cholesterol, which significantly increase his risk. Addressing these modifiable risk factors is crucial in preventing cardiovascular events. The daughter (Choice B) and mother (Choice C) also have risk factors, but the father's combination of smoking and high cholesterol places him at higher immediate risk, demanding priority intervention. The 12-year-old son (Choice D) with a normal weight and an active lifestyle has a lower risk profile and does not require immediate intervention compared to the father.
4. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Amylase of 120 U/L.
- B. Lipase of 150 U/L.
- C. Calcium of 8.5 mg/dL.
- D. Temperature of 101°F (38.3°C).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with acute pancreatitis and a history of alcohol abuse, a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C) can indicate infection, which is a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Elevated amylase and lipase levels are common in acute pancreatitis but do not directly indicate the need for urgent intervention. A calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require immediate action in this context.
5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with unilateral leg swelling. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Elevate the affected leg on a pillow.
- B. Apply a warm compress to the affected leg.
- C. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected leg.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and unilateral leg swelling is to elevate the affected leg on a pillow. Elevating the affected leg helps reduce swelling and pain by promoting venous return and preventing stasis of blood flow. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may increase inflammation and worsen the condition. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) and encouraging ambulation (Choice D) can dislodge a clot and lead to potential embolism, making these choices contraindicated in a client with DVT.
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