Nursing Elites

1. A community health nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a diabetes management program. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?

• A. increased attendance at diabetes education sessions
• B. reduced incidence of diabetes-related hospitalizations
• C. higher rates of blood glucose monitoring among participants
• D. greater knowledge of diabetes management techniques

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: reduced incidence of diabetes-related hospitalizations. This outcome is a strong indicator of successful diabetes management, as it suggests that participants are effectively controlling their condition and experiencing fewer severe complications that require hospitalization. Increased attendance at education sessions (choice A) may not directly correlate with improved health outcomes. While higher rates of blood glucose monitoring (choice C) are important, they alone may not reflect overall program success. Greater knowledge of diabetes management techniques (choice D) is valuable but does not directly measure the impact of the program on health outcomes like reduced hospitalizations.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Urine output is decreased.
• B. Thirst is decreased.
• C. Weight loss is observed.
• D. Urine specific gravity is within the normal range.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetes insipidus, the body loses excessive amounts of water, leading to diluted urine with low specific gravity. Therefore, when the urine specific gravity is within the normal range, it indicates that the kidneys are properly concentrating urine, which is a sign of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in diabetes insipidus, there is polyuria (excessive urination), persistent thirst due to fluid loss, and potential weight loss due to fluid imbalance, so these findings would not indicate effective treatment.

3. A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is least likely to exacerbate asthma?

• A. Pindolol (Visken)
• B. Carteolol (Ocupress)
• C. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor)
• D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor). Metoprolol is a beta2 blocking agent that is cardioselective and less likely to cause bronchoconstriction, making it a suitable antihypertensive option for clients with asthma. Choices A, B, and D are non-selective beta-blockers which can potentially exacerbate asthma symptoms by causing bronchoconstriction.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

5. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

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